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AleksandrR [38]
3 years ago
7

Lonergan Company occasionally uses its accounts receivable to obtain immediate cash. At the end of June 2021, the company had ac

counts receivable of $860,000. Lonergan needs approximately $540,000 to capitalize on a unique investment opportunity. On July 1, 2021, a local bank offers Lonergan the following two alternatives:
a. Borrow $540,000, sign a note payable, and assign the entire receivable balance as collateral. At the end of each month, a remittance will be made to the bank that equals the amount of receivables collected plus 12% interest on the unpaid balance of the note at the beginning of the period.
b. Transfer $590,000 of specific receivables to the bank without recourse. The bank will charge a 2% factoring fee on the amount of receivables transferred. The bank will collect the receivables directly from customers. The sale criteria are met. Required:

1. Prepare the journal entries that would be recorded on July 1 for:
a. alternative a. b. alternative

2. Assuming that 80% of all June 30 receivables are collected during July, prepare the necessary journal entries to record the collection and the remittance to the bank for:
a. alternative a.
b. alternative b.
Business
1 answer:
Bezzdna [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1 a) Debit Bank $540000, Credit Note payable $540000

no accounting entry for the collateral of Accounts receivable.

b) Debit Bank $590000, Credit Accounts receivable $590000

  Debit Factoring fee $11800 Credit Bank $11800

2 a) Debit bank $540000, Credit Note payable $540000

   Debit Note Payable $540000, Credit Accounts receivables $540000

no interest of 12% because full amount is paid at once.

b) Debit Bank $590000, Credit Accounts receivable $590000

  Debit Factoring fee $11800 Credit Bank $11800

  Debit bank $98 000, Credit Accounts receivables $98000

   

Explanation:

When the company transfers 590000 accounts receivable it is as if it has collected them and especially when there is no recourse and when they are collected they belong to the bank as the bank would have collected the money straight from customers. When 80% is collected on the remaining balance from 688000- 590000= 98000 is collected and is money for the company.

The 80% collection is more than the $540000 loan so the loan is paid at once and no interest on the remaining loan balance as is zero.

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Equipment purchased for $85,000 on January 1, 2010, was sold on July 1, 2013 for $30,000. The company uses the straight-line met
gregori [183]

Answer:

B) $59,500

Explanation:

The equipment was purchased for 85,000 and has no salvage value which means that all 85,000 will be depreciated over it lifetime. It has a life of 5 years and because it uses straight line method it means that it will depreciate equally each year. The equipment is bought on JAN 1 2010 and sold on July 1 2013 which means that the equipment is used for 3.5 years and in order to find its depreciation we will divide 3.5 by 5 and multiply it by 85,000.

3.5/5*85,000=59,500

4 0
3 years ago
With respect to the 4ps and marketing research which technique is out of place:_______
Over [174]

Answer:

d

Explanation:

The four P's of marketing are the foundation for which marketing stands on.

They include :

product - this is the good that is being marketed

price - what consumer pays for the good

place - this is where the good is being marketed

promotion - this are the various forms of advertising carried out for the good

8 0
3 years ago
Mackenzie Bezos, the ex-wife of founder Jeff Bezos, owns a large number of Amazon's shares. Using the Bloomberg quote data in 6.
nekit [7.7K]

Answer: $48.26 billion

Explanation:

Mackenzie Bezos holdings will be the percentage of the shares she owns times the total Market Capitalization of Amazon.

Total Market Cap = $1,215.5 B

Mackenzie owns 3.97% of Amazon.

= 1,215.5 * 3.97%

= $48.26 billion

7 0
4 years ago
Consider a project where the initial cash flow is negative and where all subsequent cash flows are positive.
Licemer1 [7]

Answer:

b. NPV < 0

Explanation:

The internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.

The decision rule is invest if IRR > required rate of return and don't invest if IRR < required rate of return.

The net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.

The decision rule is invest if NPV > 0 and don't invest otherwise.

The payback period measures how long it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from its cumulative cash flows.

There is no set acceptable pay back period. It is usually set at the discretion of firms.

The profitability index is the present value of a projects cash flows divided by the cost of investment.

The decision rule is invest if PI > 1 and don't if its otherwise.

For a project where the initial cash flow is negative and where all subsequent cash flows are positive, the NPV and IRR would agree.

From the question the IRR is less than the required rate of return which means the project shouldn't be embarked on. When the NPV is calculated, the same conclusion should be reached. So, the npv should be less than zero.

I hope my answer helps you

7 0
3 years ago
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a debit balance of $845 at the end of the year (before adjustment), and an analysis of accou
egoroff_w [7]

Explanation:

Given that

Debit balance = $845

Uncollectible receivables = $15,368

The Journal entry is given below:-

1.    Bad debt expenses                                        $16,213

            To, Allowance for Doubtful Accounts                    $16,213

(Being bad dept expenses is recorded)

Note

Computation is shown below:-

Debit balance + Uncollectible receivables

= $845 + $15,368

= $16,213

5 0
3 years ago
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