Rewrite the expression so that it is not in fractional form? (5)/tanx+secx

Mathematics

1 answer:

arsen [322]3 years ago

5 0

There is no other way to rewrite the expression from fractional form

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What is the value of the expression i 0 × i 1 × i 2 × i 3 × i 4?

astraxan [27]

ANSWER

The value of the expression is
$- 1$

EXPLANATION

Method 1: Rewrite as product of
${i}^{2}$

The expression given to us is,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4}$

We use the fact that
${i}^{2} = - 1$
to simplify the above expression.

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{4}$

This implies,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2}$

We substitute to obtain,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = 1\times - 1 \times - 1 \times - 1\times - 1 \times - 1$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = 1\times 1 \times 1 \times - 1 = - 1$

Method 2: Use indices to solve.

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4}$

This implies that,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{10}$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = ( {{i}^{2}} )^{5}$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = ( - 1 )^{5} = - 1$

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