The answer is B.
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Answer:
The price of the bonds is $ 1,276.
Explanation:
The value of bond or issue price can be calculated by discounting all future cash flow using effective rate of retun. Detail calculations are given below.
Future Value = Redemption present value (RPV) + Present value of interest (PVI)
RPV = 1,000 (1+5%)^-15 = $ 481 -A
PVI = 36.25 * Annuity factor =$ 759 -B
Future Value = A + B = $ 1,276
Annuity factor = (1- (1+i%)^-n)/i% = (1- (1+5%/2)^-30)/(5%/2) = 20.9303
Answer:
Van is asking about Investment area of finance.
Explanation:
- The developments reported can affect the market sentiments generally.
- The service provided by the Finance professional to his investor friend in the given context is advice regarding Investments.
- A investment is a resource or thing gathered fully intent on creating pay or acknowledgment.
- In a monetary viewpoint, a venture is the acquisition of merchandise that are not devoured today however are utilized in the future to produce abundance
Learn more about investment, refer :
brainly.com/question/14847954
60% of 5000 is 3000
STOCK:
1 Year 3000 x 1.09 = 3270
2 Year 3270 x -1.04 = 3139.2
INTEREST:
1 Year 2000 x 1.049 = 2098
2 Year 2098 x 1.049 = 2200.802
TOTAL AFTER 2 years:
3139.2 + 2200.802 = 5340.002
So the thing here is that n workers produce n units of output, and so the total product of labor equals the number of workers: q = L
will differ by labor because the extra workers creates one more units of output, = ∆q/∆L= 1
will differ by how much labour was put into it:divide both sides of the production function, = q/L= 1
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Hope this helps, now you know the answer and how to do it. HAVE A BLESSED AND WONDERFUL DAY! As well as a great rest of Black History Month! :-)
- Cutiepatutie ☺❀❤
