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ipn [44]
4 years ago
12

Anyone for 10 points??!!! The question is in the image Thanks But answer ASAP!

Mathematics
1 answer:
ivanzaharov [21]4 years ago
8 0
Bottom Side Surface Area:

(24 inches + 24 inches + 24 inches) * (30 inches)

= 72 inches * 30 inches

= 2160 inches squared


--------

Top Side Surface Area:

24 inches * 30 inches

= 720 inches squared

--------

Length of the diagonal (D) which needs to be measured:

*Use Pythaogras's theorem...

24^2 + 10^2 = D^2

D=√(24^2+10^2)

D=26 inches

------------

Measure the surface area of the two ramps:

26 inches * 30 inches * 2

= 1560 inches squared

-----------

Total surface area:

2160 inches squared + 720 inches squared + 1560 inches squared

= 4440 inches squared

---------

Answer:

4440 square inches
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8 pens cost £4.72<br> How much would 13 pens cost?
vesna_86 [32]

Answer:

$7.67

Step-by-step explanation:

So if 8 pens cost $4.72, one pen would cost $0.59. 0.59 x 13 will be equal to 7.67.

4 0
3 years ago
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What is the equation of the line, in slope-intercept form, that passes through (3, -1) and (-1, 5)?
Masteriza [31]

Answer:c

Just had it on apex


Step-by-step explanation:


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4 years ago
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Your furniture store sells two types of dining room tables. The first, type A, costs $210 and you make a $21 profit on each one.
Mumz [18]

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7 0
3 years ago
See image attached below keeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeed
emmasim [6.3K]

Answer:

.13%

68.26%

2.28%

47.72%

49.87%

34.13%

Step-by-step explanation:

1.) standardize by subtracting the mean and dividng by the standard deviation

(625-1000)/125= -3

go to a ztable to get .0013 or (1-.9987)

this is equal to .13%

2.)

875<x<1125

standardize both seperately and subtract them

(875-1000)/125= -1  whose probability is .1587 (or 1-.8413)

(1125-1000)/125= 1  whose probability is .8413

.8413-.1587= 68.26%

3.)

Find the probability that someone paid less than 1250 and take its compliment

(1250-1000)/125= 2 which has a probability of .9772

take its compliment (1-.9772)= .0228= 2.28%

4.)

Same process as question 2

(750-1000)/125= -2 which has a probability of (1-.9772) = .0228

(1000-1000)/125= 0 which has a probability of .5

.5-.0228= .4772= 47.72%

5.) same deal as the previous question

(625-1000)/125= -3 which has a probability of (1-.9987)= .0013

(1000-1000)/125= 0 which has a probability of .5

.5-.0013= .4987= 49.87%

6.)same deal the previous question

(875-1000)/125= -1 which has a probability of (1-.8413)=.1587

(1000-1000)/125= 0 which has a probability of .5

.5-.1587= .3413= 34.13%

4 0
3 years ago
Can someone please explain this?...... ;-;
Serhud [2]

Answer:

Okay I believe it would be c

Step-by-step explanation:

If I'm wrong I'm really sorry...

6 0
3 years ago
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