Question

I need to simplify this problem as much as I can. But I’m confused I just need step for step then the answer

Answer 1

$\bf \textit{Pythagorean Identities} \\\\ sin^2(\theta)+cos^2(\theta)=1\implies cos^2(\theta )=1-sin^2(\theta ) \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ \cfrac{sin^2(\theta )}{1-sin^2(\theta )}\implies \cfrac{sin^2(\theta )}{cos^2(\theta )}\implies \left[ \cfrac{sin(\theta )}{cos(\theta )} \right]^2\implies tan^2(\theta )$