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Hitman42 [59]
3 years ago
12

A regression model involved 18 independent variables and 200 observations. The critical value of t for testing the significance

of each of the independent variable's coefficients will have:__________. a) 18 degrees of freedom b) 200 degrees of freedom c) 199 degrees of freedom d) 181 degrees of freedom
Mathematics
1 answer:
Evgen [1.6K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question will be Option d (181 degrees of freedom).

Step-by-step explanation:

The given values are:

Regression model,

n = 200

Observations,

p = 18

Now,

⇒  n-p-1

On putting the estimated values, we get

⇒  200-18-1

⇒  181

So that the correct choice will be "181 degrees of freedom".

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Tems11 [23]

a = hours worked by the first mechanic

b = hours worked by the second mechanic.

since the first mechanic charges $55 per hour, then for "a" hours that'd be a total of 55*a or 55a, likewise, for the second mechanic that'd be a total charge of 80*b or 80b.

we know all hours combined are 15, so then a + b = 15.

we also know that all charges combined are $950, so 55a + 80b = 950.

\bf \begin{cases} a+b=15\\ \boxed{b}=15-a\\ \cline{1-1} 55a+80b=950 \end{cases}\qquad \qquad \stackrel{\textit{substituting on the 2nd equation}}{55a+80\left( \boxed{15-a} \right)=950} \\\\\\ 55a+1200-80a=950\implies -25a+1200=950\implies -25a=-250 \\\\\\ a=\cfrac{-250}{-25}\implies \blacktriangleright a = 10\blacktriangleleft \\\\\\ \stackrel{\textit{since we know that}}{b=15-a\implies }b=15-10\implies \blacktriangleright b=5 \blacktriangleleft

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3 years ago
Describe a situation where it would be beneficial to round decimals to the nearest dollar explain why you would use rounding in
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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If 1 inch is 500 miles, then 4 inches is how many miles?
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

2,000 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given:

1 inch=500 miles

This can be rewritten as:

\frac{500 miles}{1inch}

This is representative of a unit rate, as we have a 1 in the denominator. To calculate the number of miles in 4 inches, simply multiply the unit rate by 4:

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This can rewritten as:

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Therefore, there are 2,000 miles in 4 inches.

-

We can check our solution by simplifying the fraction \frac{2000 miles}{4 inches} by dividing both 2000 and 4 by 4 to see if we achieve the unit rate:

\frac{500 miles}{1 inch}

Since this is in fact the unit rate, our solution is correct!

6 0
3 years ago
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wel

Answer:

V /(lw) = h

Step-by-step explanation:

V = lwh

Divide each side by lw

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3 years ago
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