Question

Can someone tell me if I got the answer right? For the first one I got 2 and for the second one I got -1.

Answer 1

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

f(g(2)) = f(0) = -2

g(f(1)) = g(0) = 0

Answer 2

Answer:

The correct answers for both of them is -2 and 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

I)

$(f\circ g)(2)=f(g(2))$

From the red graph, we can see that g(2) is 0.

Therefore, f(g(2)) is equal to f(0).

And from the blue graph, we can see that f(0) is -2.

Therefore:

$(f\circ g)(2)=-2$

II)

$(g\circ f)(1)=g(f(1))$

From the blue graph, we can see that f(1) is 0.

Therefore, g(f(1)) is equal to g(0).

And from the red graph, g(0) is 0.

Therefore:

$(g\circ f)(1)=0$

So, you got one correct. Nicely done!