Answer:
The correct answer is option D.
Explanation:
Long-run elasticities of demand differ from short-run elasticity. In the short period is more inelastic. This is because people take time to adjust their consumption habits. So if the time period people have to adjust to the price change is long, then the demand will be elastic.
Durable goods can be used for a relatively long time. So they will have a less elastic demand.
If aggregate demand in the long run is falling for several months in a row, it will make aggregate market results in an increase in the price level but no change in real production. The level of real production resulting from the aggregate demand shock is full-employment real production.
Aggregate demand can be described as a measurement of the total amount of demand for all finished services and goods produced in an economy. Aggregate demand is expressed as the total amount of money exchanged for those services and goods at a specific point in time and price level.
The model of aggregate demand and long-run aggregate supply predicts that the economy will eventually move toward its potential output. To see how nominal wage and price stickiness can cause real GDP to be either above or below potential in the short run, consider the response of the economy to a change in aggregate demand.
Learn more about aggregate demand in the link brainly.com/question/14375684
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Answer:
the journal entry to record bond issuance:
Dr Cash 1,444,000
Dr Discount on bonds payable 76,000
Cr Bonds payable 1,520,000
amortization of discount on bonds payable = $76,000 / 5 = $15,000
coupon payment = $91,200
total interest expense per year = $106,200
total interest expense for the 5 year period = $106,200 x 5 years = <u>$531,000</u>
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Answer:
d. 10.6% higher
Explanation:
Given that;
Real GDP = $13.2 trillion
Nominal GDP = $14.6 trillion
GDP deflator = (Nominal GDP/Real GDP)× 100)
Hence,
GDP deflator = (14.6 / 13.2 ) × 100
GDP deflator = 110.6%
Thus,
= 110.6 - 100
= 10.6% higher
