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Svetlanka [38]
3 years ago
11

A financial analyst is in the process of reviewing four investments projects for one of his clients. The net present cash values

for the four projects are estimated at $50 million, $15 million, $20 million and $80
Business
1 answer:
inysia [295]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Consider the following calculation

Explanation:

All projects having positive NPVs, thus all projects are feasible.

(All figures are in $' million)

Funds required to invest in all projects are

First year = 6 + 2 + 4 + 10 = 22 & available fund for first year is only 20.

Second year = 8 + 4 + 8 + 6 = 36 & available fund for second year is only 13.

In these type of situations we use Profitability Index to decide which projects are selected and which are to be skipped.

Profitablilty index = PV of cash inflow/ PV of cash outflows

But in this such information is not given to calculate Profitability index, thus we are calculating here NPV per One $ of investment.

thus NPV per One $ of investment = NPV of project / Investment in Project

Note: We are taking here value of investment in project for both two year with out taking effect of time value of money as no discount rate is provided in the question.

CHECK THE EXCEL ATTACHED

Total fund available with investor = 20+13 = 33

Total fund required for Project 4 & Project 1= 16 + 14 =30

thus he can invest in only project 4 & Project 1, for investing in next profitable project i.e. project 2 he requires $6 million but he has only $3 million in his hands.

Thus the optimal solution for the client is to invest in Project 4 & Project 1.

Thus Funds available in first year = 20, Investment in First year = 10+6 = 16, Funds remains in hand =4

Funds available in second year = 4+ 13= 17, Investment in second year =6+8= 14, funds remains in hand = 3

NPV from total investment = 80 + 50 = 130

Download xlsx
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Answer:

$28.57

Explanation:

Current price = D1/(Required return-Growth rate)

D1 (Next dividend) = $2

Required return = 10% = 0.1

Growth rate = 3% = 0.03

Current price = $2/(0.1-0.03)

Current price = $2 / 0.07

Current price = $28.57143

Current price = $28.57

Hence, i will be willing to pay $28.57 for a share of Merck stock.

8 0
4 years ago
Prextos Corp., after incurring losses, decides to move its manufacturing unit to a foreign location where it would get labor at
Darya [45]

Answer:

Offshoring

Explanation:

offshoring is the  process of  moving an aspect of a business process overseas with the intention of  reducing cost.

A firm can move its manufacturing process from its own parent country to another country (usually where the  labour rate and cost of raw materials is cheap compared to what it obtainable in its home country) in other to  reduce  its cost of production thereby increasing its added value.

From the above explanation, we can conclude that Prextos is planning to employ  Offshoring to cut down losses.

7 0
4 years ago
Wendell’s Donut Shoppe is investigating the purchase of a new $40,000 donut-making machine. The new machine would permit the com
oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

initial outlay $40,000

savings per year = $5,200

additional contribution margin = 2,000 x $2.40 = $4,800

machines useful life = 6 years

1) total annual cash flows (assuming no residual value)

Year₀ = -$40,000

Year₁ = $5,200 + $4,800 = $10,000

Year₂ = $10,000

Year₃ = $10,000

Year₄ = $10,000

Year₅ = $10,000

Year₆ = $10,000

2) to determine IRR we can use a financial calculator or the present value of an annuity formula:

PV = annual payment x annuity factor

PV = $40,000

annual payment = $10,000

annuity factor = $40,000 / $10,000 = 4

3) using present value of an annuity table:

we have 6 periods, and we must look for an interest rate that results in an annuity factor of 4 = 13% (the exact annuity factor is 3.998)

using a financial calculator, the IRR = 12.98%, which we can round to 13%

4) the cash flows will be:

Year₀ = -$40,000

Year₁ = $10,000

Year₂ = $10,000

Year₃ = $10,000

Year₄ = $10,000

Year₅ = $10,000

Year₆ = $20,515

We cannot use the annuity formula now because our annuities are not equal. Using a financial calculator, IRR = 16.99%

6 0
3 years ago
A factor that most influences changes in consumer demand is
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4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can you solve this activty for me please got stuck,
Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:

a. The marginal product of each white worker is 143%

b. The marginal product of each black worker is 70%

c. Since, adjusted wage of black labor with d=0.2 is less than the wage of white labor of $2,000, the profit maximizing firm would hire only black labor.

Since, adjusted wage of black labor with d=0.8 is greater than the wage of white labor of $2,000, the profit maximizing firm would hire only white labor.

d. Value of D coefficient that allows to employ black and white labor is 0.43

Explanation:

According to the given data we have the following:

Weekly wage for white labor is $2,000

Weekly wage for black labor is $1,400

production function is Q = 10(EW + EB)

manager production function is Q = 10EW + 10(1 – d) EB

Price of the product is $240

Weekly output is 150 units

a. To calculate the value of the marginal product of each white worker we use the following formula:

marginal product of each white worker=Weekly wage for white labor/Weekly wage for black labor

marginal product of each white worker=$2,000/$1,400

marginal product of each white worker=1.43=143%

b. To calculate the value of the marginal product of each black worker we use the following formula:

marginal product of each black worker=Weekly wage for black labor/Weekly wage for white labor

marginal product of each black worker=$1,400/$2,000

marginal product of each black worker=0.7=70%

c. To describe the employment decision we have to calculate the adjusted wage of black labor with d=0.2 and d=0.8 as follows:

adjusted wage of black labor with d=0.2=Wage black(1+D coefficient)

=1,400(1+0.2)

=1400(1.2)

=1,680.

Since, adjusted wage of black labor with d=0.2 is less than the wage of white labor of $2,000, the profit maximizing firm would hire only black labor.

adjusted wage of black labor with d=0.2=Wage black(1+D coefficient)

=1,400(1+0.8)

=1,400(1.8)

=2,520

Since, adjusted wage of black labor with d=0.8 is greater than the wage of white labor of $2,000, the profit maximizing firm would hire only white labor.

d. To calculate for what value(s) of d is a firm willing to hire blacks and whites we would have to calculate the following formula:

Wage black(1+D coefficient)=Wage white

1,400(1+D coefficient)=2,000

(1+D coefficient)=2,000/1,4000

D coefficient=1.43-1

D coefficient=0.43

Value of D coefficient that allows to employ black and white labor is 0.43

4 0
3 years ago
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