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nydimaria [60]
3 years ago
13

$12.25 pen set; 60% discount

Mathematics
1 answer:
Inessa05 [86]3 years ago
6 0
As you want a 60% discount, you must find 40% of $12.25.

40% of $12.25 is the same as 2/5 of $12.25.

Now, 12.25 / 5 = 2.45

And, 2.45 x 2 = 4.90

--------------

This means that 60% off $12.25 is $4.90.
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The market and Stock J have the following probability distributions:
denis-greek [22]

Answer:

1) E(M) = 14*0.3 + 10*0.4 + 19*0.3 = 13.9 \%

2) E(J)= 22*0.3 + 4*0.4 + 12*0.3 = 11.8 \%

3) E(M^2) = 14^2*0.3 + 10^2*0.4 + 19^2*0.3 = 207.1

And the variance would be given by:

Var (M)= E(M^2) -[E(M)]^2 = 207.1 -(13.9^2)= 13.89

And the deviation would be:

Sd(M) = \sqrt{13.89}= 3.73

4) E(J^2) = 22^2*0.3 + 4^2*0.4 + 12^2*0.3 =194.8

And the variance would be given by:

Var (J)= E(J^2) -[E(J)]^2 = 194.8 -(11.8^2)= 55.56

And the deviation would be:

Sd(M) = \sqrt{55.56}= 7.45

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we have the following distributions given:

Probability  M   J

0.3           14%  22%

0.4           10%    4%

0.3           19%    12%

Part 1

The expected value is given by this formula:

E(X)=\sum_{i=1}^n X_i P(X_i)

And replacing we got:

E(M) = 14*0.3 + 10*0.4 + 19*0.3 = 13.9 \%

Part 2

E(J)= 22*0.3 + 4*0.4 + 12*0.3 = 11.8 \%

Part 3

We can calculate the second moment first with the following formula:

E(M^2) = 14^2*0.3 + 10^2*0.4 + 19^2*0.3 = 207.1

And the variance would be given by:

Var (M)= E(M^2) -[E(M)]^2 = 207.1 -(13.9^2)= 13.89

And the deviation would be:

Sd(M) = \sqrt{13.89}= 3.73

Part 4

We can calculate the second moment first with the following formula:

E(J^2) = 22^2*0.3 + 4^2*0.4 + 12^2*0.3 =194.8

And the variance would be given by:

Var (J)= E(J^2) -[E(J)]^2 = 194.8 -(11.8^2)= 55.56

And the deviation would be:

Sd(M) = \sqrt{55.56}= 7.45

8 0
3 years ago
Tan(-212°)=____.<br><br> 1. -cot 32°<br> 2. tan 32°<br> 3. cot 32°<br> 4. -tan 32°
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

4. -\tan 32°

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

The tangent of the angle is given as:

\tan (-212\°)

Since the angle is negative, it means that it is measured in the clockwise direction as angles measured in clockwise direction are negative and that measured in counter clockwise directions are positive.

-212° when measured from counter clockwise direction will be equal to:

-212\°(Clockwise)=360-212=148\°(CCW)

Therefore, \tan (-212\°) = \tan (148\°)

Now, we have the identity for tan as:

\tan(\pi-\theta)=-\tan \theta

Here, \theta=148\°

Therefore,

-\tan (148\°)=\tan(180-148)\\-\tan(148\°)=\tan(32\°)\\\textrm{Multiplying both sides by -1, we get:}\\-1(-\tan(148\°)=-1\times \tan(32\°)\\\\\tan(148\°)=-\tan(32\°)

Hence, \tan (-212\°) = \tan (148\°) = -\tan 32°

5 0
3 years ago
Help with algebra 2 I can’t figure out how to solve the problem .
defon

Answer: D

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the equation plot in the coordinates of the points to see if they fit the equation.

5x-3y < 30  

A)  5(-3) -3(5) < 30

   -15 -15 < 30

    -30 < 30   This is true

B)  5(0) -3(0) < 30

     0 - 0 < 30

     0< 30     This is true

C)  5(-5) - 3(3) < 30

    -25 - 9  < 30

      -34 < 30    This is also true

D) 5(3) - 3(-5) < 30  

   15 + 15 < 30

  30 < 30         This is not true because 30 is not greater that 30

   

3 0
3 years ago
What is the value of sin0 in the diagram below?​
Tasya [4]

Answer:

The answer to your question is:  24/25

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember  that sinФ = opposite leg / hypotenuse

Opposite  leg = 24/25

Hypotenuse = 1

then  sin Ф = (24/25) / 1

        sin Ф = 24/25

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Evaluate the expression when a=1\4 and b=6. -8ab
tester [92]

Answer:

-12

Step-by-step explanation:

-8 * ( 1/4) * (6)

= -12

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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