Answer:
Today, the investment is worth $31,997.29
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
An investment offers $5,900 per year for 15 years, with the first payment occurring one year from now. The required return is 6 percent
First, we need to calculate the final value, using the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual pay= 5,900
n= 15
i= 0.06
FV= {5,900*[(1.06^15)-1]} / 0.06= $137,328.22
Now, we can determine the present value:
PV= FV/ (1+i)^n
PV= 137,328.22/ 1.06^25= $31,997.29
Answer: <em><u>The Assembly Process</u></em>
Explanation: I hope it helps you!
The amount that should be debited to Bad Debts Expense, assuming 3% of outstanding accounts receivable at the end of the current year are estimated to be uncollectible is $1,913
<h3>What is bad debts expenses?</h3>
Bad debt are debts owned to a business which cannot be recovered. Here, the customer has chosen not to pay this amount.
Computation of amount to be debited to Bad Debts Expense:
= Accounts Receivable, debit balance of $97,800 * 3% of outstanding accounts receivable at the end of the current year
= $97,800 * 3%
= $2,934
Then,
= $2,934 - $1,021
= $1,913
Hence, the amount that should be debited to Bad Debts Expense, assuming 3% of outstanding accounts receivable at the end of the current year are estimated to be uncollectible is $1,913
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Answer:
The thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the pin code on the first try.
Explanation:
Simply, if the ATM card has a 3-digit code that can be repeated, and the board has 9 numbers (for example, from 1 to 9), we must start from the smallest number that could be formed with these numbers to the highest number that these numbers could also compose, which in the case would be 111 and 999. Then, 889 different numbers could be formed (it is the distance between 111 and 999), with which the possibility of hitting the key to the first attempt would be 1 in 889 times, or 1/889.
To take the probability to a percentage, we must know that 889 / 8.89 gives 100. Therefore, dividing 1 / 8.89 we will know the percentage of probabilities of hitting the key on the first attempt: 1 / 8.89 = 0.11.
This shows us that the thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the key on the first try.
The entry is record in book as
Date Particular L.F. Dr. Amt. Cr. Amt.
Income summary a/c $460,500
To Mo a/c $69,300
To Lu a/c $269,500
To Barb a/c $431,200
What is net income?
The total amount of firm profit after deducting all taxes, costs, and interest is referred to as "net income."
Particulars Mo Lu Barb
Capital invested $69,300 $269,500 $431,200
Profit sharing ratio 20/100 40/100 40/100
Profit ($460,500) 92100 184200 184200
As a result, Mo is 92100; Lu is 184200; Barb is 184200 as profit.
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