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Rainbow [258]
2 years ago
10

In a homogeneous-good Cornet model where each of the n firms has a constant marginal cost m and the market demand curve is p = a

- bQ, show that the Nash-Cournot equilibrium output of a typical firm is q=a-m/(n+1)b . Show that industry output, Q (= nq), equals the monopoly level if n = 1 and approaches the competitive level as n gets very large.PLEASE write clear
Business
1 answer:
Jlenok [28]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Q=nq=\frac{n}{n+1}\frac{a-c}{b}

if n=1 (monopoly) we have Q^M=\frac{1}{2}\frac{a-c}{b}

if n goes to infinity (approaching competitive level), we get the competition quantity that would be Q^c=\frac{a-c}{b}

Explanation:

In the case of a homogeneous-good Cournot model we have that firm i will solve the following profit maximizing problem

Max_{q_i} \,\, \Pi_i=(a-b(\sum_{i=1}^n q_i)-m)q_i

from the FPC we have that

a-b\sum_{i=1}^n q_i -m -b q_i=0

q_i=\frac{a-b \sum_{i=2}^n q_i-m}{2b}

since all firms are homogeneous this means that q_i=q \forall i

then q=\frac{a-b (n-1) q-m}{2b}=\frac{a-m}{(n+1)b}

the industry output is then

Q=nq=\frac{n}{n+1}\frac{a-c}{b}

if n=1 (monopoly) we have Q^M=\frac{1}{2}\frac{a-c}{b}

if n goes to infinity (approaching competitive level), we get the competition quantity that would be Q^c=\frac{a-c}{b}

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A mining company is considering a new project. Because the mine has received a permit, the project would be legal; but it would
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

With mitigation: NPV =$36,670,000, IRR= 15,24%

Without mitigation: NPV= $ 42,000,000, IRR= 19,86%

Explanation:

To calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) we have to sum the present value of a project´s cash flows (positive and negative cashflows). To do so, we need: the number of periods of the project, the discount rate, cost of captal  or WACC, and the future values of the cash flows. Then we apply the formula attached.

To calculate the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) we have to find the discount rate, cost of capital or WACC that makes the NPV equal to cero. That means we have to find a rate in which the investor do not create or destroy value, only recovers the investment. I attached the formula.

But, this is better if we use excel:

First we copy the cash flows of the two projects. To find the NPV we use the financial formula "NPV" in this way:

"=NPV(rate;cash flows from year 1 to year 5)+ cash flow of year 0"

To find the IRR we use the financial formula "IRR" in this way:

"=IRR(cash flows from year 0 to year 5)"

I attached the excel figure.

6 0
3 years ago
When a bank keeps $12 from a $100 deposit as legal reserves, it is using
vitfil [10]
When a bank keeps $12 from a $100 deposit as legal reserves, it is using <span>a fractional reserve system. The correct option among all the options that are given in the question is option "b".

</span>The Fed has defined different categories of money, M1 and M2, according to the money's function. The correct option among all the options <span>that are given in the question is option "b".</span>
6 0
2 years ago
Milo decides to invest $1,500 in a savings account every year at the beginning of the year for 10 years. Assuming an interest ra
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

$22,175.40

Explanation:

For this question, we use the Future value formula that is shown on the attachment below:

Provided that,  

Present value = $0

Rate of interest = 7%

NPER = 10 years

PMT = $1,500

The formula is shown below:

= -FV(Rate;NPER;PMT;PV;type)

So, after solving this, the future value is $22,175.40

Therefore, the amount at the end of the year is $22,175.40

4 0
3 years ago
A coupon bond that pays interest semiannually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 8 years, and has a yield to maturity of 6%.
vitfil [10]

Answer:

b. 1,062.81

Explanation:

the key to answer this question is to remember that valuation of a bond depends basically of calculating the present value of a series of cash flows, so let´s think about a bond as if you were a lender so you will get interest by the money you lend (coupon) and at the end of n years you will get back the money you lend at the beginnin (principal), so applying math we have the bond value given by:

price=\frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{1} }+ \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{2} } \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{3} }+...+\frac{principal+principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{n} }

where: principal as said before is the value lended, coupon is the rate of interest paid, i is the interest rate and n is the number of periods

so applying to this particular exercise, as it is not said we will assume that 6% and 7% are interest rate convertible seminually, so the price of the bond will be:

price=\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{1} } +\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{2} }+\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{3} }+...+\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{15} }+\frac{1,000+1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{16} }

price=1,062.81

take into account that here we are asked about semianually payments, so in 8 years there are 16 semesters.

6 0
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What are the effects of using leverage on cash flows?
OleMash [197]

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