"Ten subtracted from the quotient of a number and<br>7 is less than -6.

I need help on this question

vodka [1.7K]

Answer

Arc EF = 52°

Arc HD = 142°

Angle HGF = 128°

Explanation

To solve for the unknown angles, we need to first solve for x

To do that, we need to first note that the sum of angles on a straight line is 180°

So,

Angle HCG + Angle HCD = 180° (Sum of angles on a straight line)

Angle HCG = 2x

Angle HCD = 6x + 28°

Angle HCG + Angle HCD = 180°

2x + 6x + 28° = 180°

8x + 28° = 180°

8x = 180° - 28°

8x = 152°

Divide both sides by 8

(8x/8) = (152°/8)

x = 19°

Angle HCG = 2x = 2 (19°) = 38°

Angle HCD = 6x + 28° = 6(19°) + 28° = 142°

So, we can solve for the rest now

Arc EF = Angle ECF

= 90° - Angle ECD

Angle ECD = Angle HCG = 38° (Vertically opposite angles are equal)

Arc EF = Angle ECF

= 90° - Angle ECD

= 90° - 38°

= 52°

Arc HD = Angle HCD = 142°

Angle HGF = Angle HCG + Angle GCF = 38° + 90° = 128°

Hope this Helps!!!

6 0

1 year ago

In a genetics experiment on peas, one sample of offspring contained 376green peas and 150yellow peas. Based on those results,

ivanzaharov [21]

Answer:

1a. p0= 0.714

1b The result is not reasonably close to the value of 3/4 that was expected

Step-by-step explanation:

1a.Since One sample of offspring contained 376 green peas and 150 yellow peas therefore the probability of getting an offspring pea that is green will be:

Green pea/(Green pea+ Yellow pea)

p0= 376 /(376+150)

p0=376/526

Probability of getting Green pea = 0.714

1b.The result is not reasonably close to the value of 3/4 that was expected.

4 0

3 years ago

The taste test for PTC (phenylthiourea) is a common class demonstration in the study of genetics. It is known that 70% of the Am

AysviL [449]

Answer:

The variance for the number of tasters is 4.2

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are tasters, or they are not. The probability of a person being a taster is independent of any other person. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

The variance of the binomial distribution is:

$V(X) = np(1-p)$