Answer:
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Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
Given (x + h) is a factor of f(x) then f(- h) = 0
Given
p(x) = x³ - 4x² + ax + 20 , with (x + 1) as a factor then
p(- 1) = (- 1)³ - 4(- 1)² - a + 20 = 0 , that is
- 1 - 4 - a + 20 = 0
15 - a = 0 ( subtract 15 from both sides )
- a = - 15 ( multiply both sides by - 1 )
a = 15 , thus
p(x) = x³ - 4x² + 15x + 20
If p(x) is divided by (x + h) then p(- h) is the remainder, so
p(- 2) = (- 2)³ - 4(- 2)² + 15(- 2) + 20 , that is
- 8 - 16 - 30 + 20 = - 34 → A
X=-8
A negative plus a positive, if ghe negative is bigger it stays negative. -8 is bigger than 5 and 8 - 5 is 3 add the negative and you get -3
It depends in the type on interest
Simple Interest
PxRxT
£3000 x 0.05 x 3 = £450
£3000 + £450 = £3450
Compound Interest
Px(1+R)^T
£3000 x (1 + 0.05)³ = £3472.875 = £3472.88
To solve this problem, there are a couple things we need to do. First of all, we need to figure out how much more she's running every day. On day 1, she ran 3/16 of a mile. On day 2, she ran 3/8 of a mile. On day 3, she ran 9/16 of a mile.
How much are we adding each time? To find that out, we need all of our fractions to have the same denominator so we can compare. Let's give 3/8 a denominator of 16. 8*2=16. What you do on one side of the fraction bar, you MUST do to the other: 3*2=6. So, 3/8 = 6/16.
Day 1: 3/16. Day 2: 6/16. Day 3: 9/16. Now do you see the pattern? Every day, she runs 3/16 of a mile more. That's the answer to part 1: 3/16.
So, how long will it take her to get over 1 mile? Let's continue. Day 3: 9/16. Day 4: 9+3=12, so that's 12/16. Day 5: 15/16. Day 6: 18/16! Since the numerator is bigger than the denominator, guess what? That's more than one mile!! So on the 6th time she runs, she ran 18/16 miles. Keep in mind that 18/16 = 9/8 = 1 1/8 miles.
Answers: 3/16; 6th; 1 1/8 (or 9/8)
