John says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you don't have to reverse the inequality symbol when you multiply or divide bo
th sides by a negative number. Complete the example that disproves John's statement.
If you divide both sides of −3z ≥ 0 by −3, you get z ≥
Can anyone help ? :)
2 answers:
It doesn't matter if there is 0, you still flip the inequality symbol.
-3z <span>≥ 0
z </span>≤ 0
^agreed . The 0 does not matter what so ever and yes be sure to always flip the inequality!
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23x + 56 = 313
subtract both sides by 52
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=30m-3 is -3(1-8m-2n) written in standard form
The answer is A.
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Answer:
−40+2n=−4n+8
−40+2n+40=−4n+8+40
2n=−4n+48
2n+4n=−4n+48+4n
6n=48
answer: n=8
Step-by-step explanation:
