John says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you don't have to reverse the inequality symbol when you multiply or divide bo

Question

3 years ago

11

John says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you don't have to reverse the inequality symbol when you multiply or divide bo

th sides by a negative number. Complete the example that disproves John's statement.
If you divide both sides of −3z ≥ 0 by −3, you get z ≥

Can anyone help ? :)

Mathematics

2 answers:

Jobisdone [24] · Answer 1 · 2022-05-10T21:11:38+03:00

Jobisdone [24]3 years ago

6 0

It doesn't matter if there is 0, you still flip the inequality symbol.
-3z <span>≥ 0
z </span>≤ 0

Law Incorporation [45] · Answer 2 · 2022-05-10T23:16:22+03:00

Law Incorporation [45]3 years ago

6 0

^agreed . The 0 does not matter what so ever and yes be sure to always flip the inequality!