Answer:
approximately 9 weeks
Step-by-step explanation:
I can't really show the work on here, 1,000,000÷15,000= 66. (a whole lot of numbers, but only 66 is important). There is 7 days in a week, so 66 days ÷7 equals 9.(again a whole lot of useless numbers).
Answer:
The correct option is d. $ 785
Step-by-step explanation:
Since,

Where,
C = Annual coupon payment,
FV = Face value,
M = Maturity in years,
YTM = yield to maturity,
Here,
FV = $ 1,000,
C = 7% of 1000 =
= 70,
M = 20 years,
YTM = 9.4% = 0.094,
By substituting the values,

= $ 785.3454 ( Using calculator )
≈ $ 785
Hence, OPTION d. is correct.
Answer:
the slope is 0 your welcome