Answer:
D) All of the above would be classified as manufacturing overhead.
Explanation:
Manufacturing overhead is the overhead incurred directly in relation to the manufacturing process.
It can be fixed as well as variable, there is no standard conclusion for the above on the basis of nature of overhead.
Machining shop is a part of manufacturing process, and all expense related to that will be classified as manufacturing overhead, whether the expense is in cash like supervisor salary, property taxes of building of machining shop, or non cash expense like depreciation.
Therefore, all the expenses will be included in manufacturing overhead.
Tell them to wait patiently, and give them a
drink
Answer: The answer is $1,092,865.5426
To the nearest whole dollar, we have:
$1,092,866
Explanation: from the question above, we will be calculating the present value of a cashflow of $93,000 over a period of 20 years, at a rate of 5.76%.
We will be performing a discounting operation.
Refer to the attached files below to see the calculations and how we arrived at the answer above.
The rest of it will be: price equals marginal cost. But this indeed is not true. The most accepted idea is that for a monopolistically competitive firm the average revenue and price are the same quantity. Now, when a monopolistically competitive firm is in long-run equilibrium, then the marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost.
Answer:
Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual hours
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The production used 2.5 labor hours per finished unit, and the company paid $21 per hour, totaling $52.50 per unit of finished product.
<u>We weren't provided with enough information to solve the problem. We need estimated production hours and rates. But, I can leave the formula to solve it.</u>
To calculate direct labor rate variance, we need to use the following formula:
Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual Hours
