Answer:
1,823.20
Step-by-step explanation:
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The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
Find out more about ordinary annuity on:brainly.com/question/13369387
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Answer: After 1 day, the amount of Iodine-125 has decreased by 1.15%. Write an exponential decay model with A(t) representing the amount of Iodine-125 remaining
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
You multiply the denominator and the whole number then add the numerator.
Step-by-step explanation:
Example: 
You multiply 3 and 4
3*4=12
Then add the numerator
12+2=14
The final answer would be
