The answer i would choose is A
<em>Answer:</em>
<em>Upselling </em><em> </em>
<em>Explanation:</em>
<em>Upselling: </em><em>The term "upselling" is described as a specific sales technique in which a seller generally induces different customers to buy or purchase items that are considered as more expensive, upgrades or any other "add-ons" while making an effort to create a profitable sale. </em>
<em>In other words,</em><em> it is referred to as a practice or an effort to encourage various customers to buy high-end products. This is a method of persuading customers.</em>
<em>As per the question, the given statement signifies "upselling".</em>
As a result of the demand increasing only slightly compared to the reduction in price, the demand must be <u>inelastic</u>.
<h3>Why is the demand inelastic?</h3><h3 />
The demand is considered to be inelastic if the price elasticity is less than 1.
The price elasticity is:
= (%Change in quantity/% Change in price)
Solving gives:
= 15 / 200 ÷ 0.50 / 3.50
= -0.525
In conclusion, the demand for the shakes is inelastic.
Find out more on inelastic demand at brainly.com/question/1899986.
Answer:
4
Explanation:
Formula: 1 / Reserve money ratio -> 1 / 0.25 = 4
The correct answer is the intensive distribution. An
intensive distribution is being defined as having to get products to many
outlets as possible by which the consumers are likely to encounter and see the
product everywhere that they may go to.
