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mezya [45]
3 years ago
15

Suppose I ask you to pick any four cards at random from a deck of 52, without replacement, and bet you one dollar that at least

one of the four is a face card (i.e., Jack, Queen, or King). Should you take the bet? Why? (Hint: See how the probability of this event compares to 50%. If this is too hard, try it with replacement first.) (b) What if the bet involves picking three cards at random instead of four? Should you take the bet then? Why? (c) Refer to the posted Rcode folder for this part. Please answer all questions.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Tatiana [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

a) No, because you have only 33.8% of chances of winning the bet.

b) No, because you have only 44.7% of chances of winning the bet.

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Of the total amount of cards (n=52 cards) there are 12 face cards (3 face cards: Jack, Queen, or King for everyone of the 4 suits: clubs, diamonds, hearts and spades).

The probabiility of losing this bet is the sum of:

- The probability of having a face card in the first turn

- The probability of having a face card in the second turn, having a non-face card in the first turn.

- The probability of having a face card in the third turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.

- The probability of having a face card in the fourth turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.

<u><em>1) The probability of having a face card in the first turn</em></u>

In this case, the chances are 12 in 52:

P_1=P(face\, card)=12/52=0.231

<u><em>2) The probability of having a face card in the second turn, having a non-face card in the first turn.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get a non-face card (there are 40 in the dech of 52), and then, with the rest of the cards (there are 51 left now), getting a face card:

P_2=P(non\,face\,card)*P(face\,card)=(40/52)*(12/51)=0.769*0.235=0.181

<u><em>3) The probability of having a face card in the third turn, having a non-face card in the first and second turn.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get two consecutive non-face card, and then, with the rest of the cards, getting a face card:

P_3=(40/52)*(39/51)*(12/50)\\\\P_3=0.769*0.765*0.240=0.141

<u><em>4) The probability of having a face card in the fourth turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get three consecutive non-face card, and then, with the rest of the cards, getting a face card:

P_4=(40/52)*(39/51)*(38/50)*(12/49)\\\\P_4=0.769*0.765*0.76*0.245=0.109

With these four probabilities we can calculate the probability of losing this bet:

P=P_1+P_2+P_3+P_4=0.231+0.181+0.141+0.109=0.662

The probability of losing is 66.2%, which is the same as saying you have (1-0.662)=0.338 or 33.8% of winning chances. Losing is more probable than winning, so you should not take the bet.

b) If the bet involves 3 cards, the only difference with a) is that there is no probability of getting the face card in the fourth turn.

We can calculate the probability of losing as the sum of the first probabilities already calculated:

P=P_1+P_2+P_3=0.231+0.181+0.141=0.553

There is 55.3% of losing (or 44.7% of winning), so it is still not convenient to bet.

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Does the table describe x as a function of y?
kicyunya [14]

Answer:

C. No, more than one output value x is assigned to the input y-value

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

х      у

-3    -2

3     6

0      7

1       7

2      4

3     - 1

Required

State if the table shows x as a function of y

x being a function of y means

x = f(y)

i.e. x represents the output while y represents the input of the function

Note that each value of y (input) must be assigned to separate values of x (output) for a function to be established

Having said;

Next step: We have to examine the x and y column

In the y column, the value 7 occurred twice (as shown below)

<em>х      у </em>

<em>0      7 </em>

<em>1       7 </em>

<em />

This implies that;

Input 7 gives output of 0 and 1.

<em>Hence, this is not a function.</em>

<em>Option C answers the question.</em>

7 0
3 years ago
What % of 400 is 85?
quester [9]
21.25% because 85/400 = .2125 which is 21.25%
6 0
3 years ago
20 is what percent of 160
stira [4]
In this problem WP means what percent

20 = WP  X 160

solve for WP, by dividing both sides by 160

and you get:

0.125 = WP

Change your decimal into a percent by multiplying by 100%

12.5% is your result.
7 0
3 years ago
What is the measure of the third angle?
SCORPION-xisa [38]
The total amount of degrees in a triangle is 180. All three angles should add up to 180˚

We know that 40+60 = 100

The next step is to do 180-100 to get the other angle.
180-100 = 80

So the measure of the third angle is 80˚

Hope this helps!

(Also if you want to do this in one equation, you would do 40+60+x = 180
40+60+x = 180
100+x = 180 (combine like terms)
x = 80 (Subtract 100 from both sides)
7 0
3 years ago
A man standing on a lighthouse at a height of 124 feet sights two boats directly in front of him. One is at an angle of depressi
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

125\ ft

Step-by-step explanation:

see the attached figure to better understand the problem

step 1

In the right triangle ABC find the length side BC

we know that

tan(62\°)=\frac{124}{BC}

BC=\frac{124}{tan(62\°)}

step 2

In the right triangle ABD find the length side BD

we know that

tan(33\°)=\frac{124}{BD}

BD=\frac{124}{tan(33\°)}

step 3

we know that

The distance between the two boats is the length side CD

CD=BD-BC

substitute the values  

CD=\frac{124}{tan(33\°)}-\frac{124}{tan(62\°)}=125\ ft

5 0
3 years ago
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