Answer:
The correct option is $1.14
Explanation:
D1=D0*(1+g)
D1 is year 1 dividend
g growth rate of dividend of 15%
D1=$0.54*(1+15%)
D1=$0.54*(1+0.15)
D1=$0.54*1.15
D1=$0.621
00
D2=$0.621*1.15
D2=$0.71415
We need to apply the discount factor to each of the dividends,the discount factor is 1/(1+r)^n
r is the rate of return of 11%
n is the relevant year
present value of year 1 dividend=$0.62100*1/(1+11%)^1
present value of year 1 dividend=$0.559459459
Present value of year 2=$0.71415*1/(1+11%)^2
Present value of year 2=$0.579620161
Total value present values=$0.559459459
+$0.579620161
=$1.14
Incurring actual indirect factory wages in excess of budgeted amounts for actual production results in a controllable variance. Therefore, the option B holds true.
<h3>What is the significance of controllable variance?</h3>
Controllable variance can be referred to or considered as a variance that computes the difference between the actual quantity and the budgeted quantity sold or consumed by a firm in an economy. It can never be deficit, and is always in surplus of the budgeted amounts.
Therefore, the option B holds true and states regarding the significance of controllable variance.
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The question seems to be incomplete. It has been added below for better reference.
Incurring actual indirect factory wages in excess of budgeted amounts for actual production results in a:
a. quantity variance
b. controllable variance
c. volume variance
d. rate variance
The (maker/signer) of the note is the one that signed the note and promised to pay at maturity. The (maker/payee) of the note is the person to whom the note is payable.
A note that the maker has neglected to settle upon maturity is referred to as a dishonored note. The note is removed from notes receivable since it has matured, and the payee or holder reports the amount owed in accounts receivable. At the note's maturity date, the maker is obligated to pay the principal and interest.
Bad debt costs. Customers with (Bad/Invalid)(Collectible/Debts) accounts fail to honor their payment obligations. It is regarded as a cost associated with selling on credit. An amount owed by another party is known as a receivable.
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The law of Diminishing returns states that as successive units of a variable resource are added to a fixed resource, beyond some point, the marginal product will decline.
<h3>What is the
law of Diminishing returns?</h3>
The law of diminishing returns explains that when an investment in a particular area increases there will be a stop at the rate of profit from that investment, after a certain point.
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Answer:
The correct answer is A. Brazilian tomato producers are worse off.
Explanation:
A country has a comparative advantage in producing a good and service if its opportunity cost of producing that good and service is lower than that of its trading partner. So it is better off for a country that has a lower opportunity cost in production a good or service to specialise in that good or service.
Brazil has a comparative advantage in coffee production, meaning, it is better off in specialising in the production of coffee and will be worse off if Brazil specialises in Tomato
Mexico has a comparative advantage is Tomato, meaning, she is better off in specialising in Tomato and worse off if she specialises in Coffee
