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stich3 [128]
3 years ago
14

If the market rate of interest is greater than the contract rate of interest, the bonds will sell for a.their face amount. b.mor

e than their face amount. c.less than their face amount. d.None of these choices are correct.
Business
2 answers:
sleet_krkn [62]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

C. Less than their face value

Explanation:

Contract rate also known as coupon rate is the is the interest percentage rate stated on the face of a note or bond. A bond that has a lower contract rate than market rate, i.e. market interest rate is greater than the coupon rate, will be sold at prices lower than face value. This is as a result of opportunity investors buying similar bonds that gives better returns.

Maurinko [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

C) less than their face amount.

Explanation:

When a bond sells at a lower price than its face value, it is sold at a discount. That means that the price that investors pay for the bond will be lower than its face value because the bond's coupon rate is lower than the market's interest rate.

When a bond is sold at a higher price than its face value, it is sold at a premium, since its coupon rate id higher than the market rate.

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St. Jude Medical makes cardiovascular medical devices, including the world's most widely used mechanical heart valve. Its produc
11111nata11111 [884]

Answer:TRUE

Explanation: Competitive advantage is a term used in business or economics to refer to Opportunity gained by a business organization over others either through REDUCED PRICE,BETTER QUALITY OF PRODUCT OR SERVICE,THROUGH ECONOMIES OF SCALE, THROUGH INNOVATION etc an organization with a good Competitive advantage will generate more Revenue compared to others. Competitive advantage helps to make an organization better than others.

7 0
3 years ago
100 points
sattari [20]

Answer:D

Explanation:

I took the test

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Johnson Battery Systems recently reported $9,000 of sales, $6,000 of operating costs other than depreciation, and $1,500 of depr
muminat

Answer:

$1,100

Explanation:

EBIT = Sales - Costs - Depreciation

       = $9,000 - $6,000 - $1,500

       = $1,500

Net income = EBIT - Tax @ 40%

                    = $1,500 - $600

                    = $900

Operating cash flow = Net income + Depreciation

                                  = $900 + $1,500

                                  = $2,400

Free cash flows:

= Operating cash flow - Increase in working capital - Capital expenditure

= $2,400 - $500 - $800

= $1,100

8 0
3 years ago
Goods in process inventory account of a manufacturing company that uses an overhead rate based on the direct labor cost has a 4,
mafiozo [28]

Answer:

Overhead absorption rate

= Overhead absorbed/Actual labour cost x 100

= $4,400/$800  x 100

= 550% of direct labour cost

Explanation:

Since the overhead absorbed is $4,400, there is need to divide the overhead absorbed by actual direct labour cost multiplied by 100. This gives the overhead application rate.

7 0
3 years ago
On November 7, Mura Company borrows $370,000 cash by signing a 90-day, 8%, $370,000 note payable. 1. Compute the accrued interes
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

At 31 December, the Interest for 54 days accrues as follows :

Interest expense $17,740 (debit)

Note Payable $17,740 (credit)

On payment February 5, the Interest expense will be capitalized in the Note Payable as follows :

Note Payable $407,473 (debit)

Cash $407,473 (credit)

Explanation:

AT, November 7, When Mura Company borrows the money :

Cash $370,000 (debit)

Note Payable $370,000  (credit)

At 31 December, the Interest for 54 days accrues as follows :

Interest expense $17,740 (debit)

Note Payable $17,740 (credit)

Interest expense calculation = $370,000 × 8% × 54/90

                                                = $17,740

At February 5, the interest for 60 days accrues as follows :

Interest expense $19,733 (debit)

Note Payable $19,733 (credit)

Interest expense calculation = $370,000 × 8% × 60/90

                                                = $19,733

On payment February 5, the Interest expense will be capitalized in the Note Payable as follows :

Note Payable $407,473 (debit)

Cash $407,473 (credit)

Note Payable Calculation = $370,000 + $19,733 + $17,740

                                              $407,473

3 0
4 years ago
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