Answer:
the internal rate of return is 6%
Explanation:
The computation of the internal rate of return is shown below;
Given that
Years Cash flows
0 -$20,790
1 $6,000
2 $6,000
3 $6,000
4 $6,000
Now apply the following formula i.e..
= IRR()
After applying the above formula, the internal rate of return is 6%
Answer:
101.12 million
Explanation:
<em>The present value of a future cash flow is the amount that can be invested today at a particular rate for a certain number of years to have the future cash flow </em>
The present value of the liability
= FV × (1+r)^(-n)
= 800 × (1.09)^(-24)
= 101.12 million
The present value of this liability= 101.12 million
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
To close the underapplied Manufacturing Overhead account requires that the Cost of Goods Sold is debited, say with $100 while the Manufacturing Overhead account is credited with the same amount. Underapplied Manufacturing Overhead account means that a debit balance is left after applying the overhead to production. To close this debit, therefore, a credit entry is required to the manufacturing overhead account. The corresponding debit entry goes to the Cost of Goods Sold, or this may be apportioned among Cost of Goods Sold, Finished Goods Inventory, and Work-in-Process, as may be the case.
Answer:
It is observed that the value of test statistics (19.168) is greater than the critical value (13.277), thus the rejected hypothesis, H₀ at α = 0.01.
There is enough evidence to conclude or deduce that sales were the same for all locations
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
Object: Test whether the sales were the same for all locations by applying 1% significance level.
The Null Hypothesis H₀ : Sales were the same for all locations
E₁ = 70 +75 +70+ 50 + 35/5 = 60
The Alternative Hypothesis Hₐ : Sales were not the same for all locations
Now,
The decision rule:
the Level of Significance be α = 0.01
Degrees of freedom is df= Number of categories -1
=5-1 = 4
Note: Kindly find an attached copy of part of the work solution of this given question
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": With employer-sponsored health insurance, your employer will pay a part of the bill for you and the benefits will not be taxed.
Explanation:
The greatest advantage of employer-sponsored health insurance relies on the fact that a portion of the premium is paid by the employer and the other proportion is paid by the worker -usually 50% is paid by each party. Besides, those premiums are federally tax-free.
