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kodGreya [7K]
2 years ago
10

Governments intervene in the foreign exchange markets for all of the following EXCEPT to 1) Earn foreign exchange 2) Reduce econ

omic uncertainty 3) Improve the nation's export competitiveness 4) Reduce inflation 5) None of the given answers
Business
1 answer:
matrenka [14]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Option (1) is correct.

Explanation:

Government intervene in the foreign exchange markets for maintaining the inflation rate at its lower level in an economy, improving the country's exports by increasing the competition among the firms, so that there is an inflow of foreign currency into the home country and minimize the economic uncertainty which can affect the economy in a negative way.

Therefore, the government doesn't intervene in the forex market for earning foreign exchange because it is not a main objective.

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5-year Treasury bonds yield 6.1%. The inflation premium (IP) is 1.9%, and the maturity risk premium (MRP) on 5-year T-bonds is 0
Dahasolnce [82]

3.20 is the real risk-free rate

<h3>What is risk-free rate?</h3>

The risk-free rate of return, commonly abbreviated as the risk-free rate, is the rate of return on a hypothetical investment with scheduled payments over a set period of time that is assumed to meet all payment obligations.

Subtract the inflation rate from the yield on the Treasury bond that corresponds to the duration of your investment to calculate the real risk-free rate.

The risk-free rate determines the return an investor can expect from an investment over a specified time period. A risk-free rate is calculated by deducting the current inflation rate from the total yield of the treasury bond that corresponds to the investment duration.

To know more about risk-free rate follow the link:

brainly.com/question/19568670

#SPJ4

5 0
1 year ago
Held-to-Maturity Bond Investment On January 1, 2016, Weaver Company purchased as held-to-maturity debt securities $500,000 face
yulyashka [42]

Answer:

b. $461,820

Explanation:

The computation of the amount reported in the balance sheet is shown below:

But before that we need to find out the amortization of discount which is

= Purchased value of bond × interest rate of return - face value of bond × interest rate

= $456,200 × 10% - $500,000 × 8%

= $45,620 - $40,000

= $5,620

Now the amount reported is

= Purchased value + discount amortization

= $456,200 + $5,620

= $461,820

Hence, the option b is correct

8 0
2 years ago
If the country were experiencing a recession, the Federal Reserve would _______________, lower the reserve requirement &amp; buy
Step2247 [10]
Lay people off or they would have to take people's money from the bank and pay them back later but I don't know the term that it is called when they do that

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
John's Auto Repair just obtained an interest-only loan of $35,000 with annual payments for 10 years and an interest rate of 8 pe
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

$2,800

Explanation:

An interest only loan represents a type of loan offer where a borrower is only expected to pay the interest either for some of the term of the loan as agreed or for all of the terms of the loan. However, the principal amount that is collected remains constant all through the agreed interest -only period.

Since the loan obtained by John's Auto Repair is Interest Only, it means that the principal of $35,000 remains constant.

Hence, in the 8th year, John is expected to pay only the interest for the period =

0.08 x $35,000

= $2,800

5 0
2 years ago
The high-low method calculates the total fixed cost as the: Group of answer choices
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

c. difference between total variable costs and total costs at a particular activity level

Explanation:

The high low method consists of calculating costs on the basis of highest & lowest activity & comparing their corresponding total costs.

Variable cost per unit is found by : change in cost divided by the change in activity level for two points

Variable Cost per unit = <u>Highest activity cost - Lowest activity cost </u>

                                      Highest activity units - lowest activity units

Fixed Cost is thereafter calculated by subtracting Total Variable Costs from Total Cost

Fixed Cost = Highest Activity Total Cost - [ (Variable cost per unit) x (highest activity units)

Fixed Cost = Lowest Activity Cost - [ (Variable cost per unit) x (lowest activity units)]

4 0
2 years ago
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