well if im right it should be 20$.
Answer:
Check the answers below
Explanation:
- The per instrument cost of the bank is $0.25. Assuming uniform cheque value, the 24 million remittances across 10000 cheque will mean per cheque value of 2400. If this amount can be invested at 8% p.a., then daily investment income will be approx = 2400 * 8% /365 = $ 0.526
- Now for the company to jus about cover the cost of the cheque processing, the time should reduce by (assuming fractional time in days is possible) 0.25/0.526 = 0.48 days
- Now if the interest that can be earned reduces to 4%, the average daily interest will also reduce to $0.263. At this level, the time required to cover the cost should reduce by 0.95 days
The difference is simply because the opportunity cost in terms of alternate usage of funds has decreased for the company.
Question:
For an economy starting at potential output, a decrease in autonomous expenditure in the short-run results in a(n):
A. increase in potential output
B. recessionary output gap
C. decrease in potential output
D. expansionary output gap
Answer:
The correct answer is B
Explanation:
A decrease in autonomous expenditure shifts the Planned Aggregate Expenditure curve downward thus creating a lower equilibrium output.
PAE = C + Ip + G + NX
where
PAE = Planned Aggregate Expenditure
C = consumption
Ip = Investment Spending
G = Government Spending
NX = Net Export
If an economy has its output equal to its potential, this will create a reduction in short-run equilibrium output leading to a recessionary output gap.
Cheers!