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Dima020 [189]
3 years ago
12

1/2/3 in simplest form

Mathematics
1 answer:
enot [183]3 years ago
7 0
5/3!! :) 
i hope i helped !
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PLS HELP THIS IS DUE TOMORROW AND I'M SO DUMB
Vitek1552 [10]
To find a perimeter of any shape you just need to add together all the sides of the shape. 
For example: /_\ (pretend this is a triangle)
If each side of the triangle is 5 cm, then 5+5+5=15 cm (or you can do 5*3=15 cm)
The perimeter of the triangle is 15 cm. 

Hope I helped!(:
8 0
3 years ago
A baker has 10 cups of sugar to make cookies. Each batch calls for 1 1/3 cups of sugar.
liraira [26]
10/1 * 1/3 = 30/3

1 1/3 = 4/3

4/3 can only go into 30/3, 7 times, with a remainder of 2/3.

7 2/3
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
1. What percent of 56 is 14?
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

Percentage Calculator: 14 is what percent of 56? = 25.

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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Help please !!!!! hurry !!!
Elanso [62]

Answer:

Calculating 75% of a number is the same as calculating 25% less

Step-by-step explanation:

.75*100=75

.25*100=25

100-25=75

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose you have an experiment where you flip a coin three times. You then count the number of heads. a.)State the random variab
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

a) X=number of heads observed when flipped the coin 3 times

b) the probability distribution is

P(X=x) = 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])

or

P(X)=1/8 for x=0 and x=3 and P(X)=3/8 for x=1 and x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

the random variable will be X=number of heads observed when flipped the coin 3 times . Since the result from each flip is independent of the others , then X has a binomial probability distribution , such that

P(X=x)= n!/[(n-x)!*x!)*p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)

where

n= number of times the coin is flipped = 3

p= probability of getting heads in a flip of the coin = 1/2 (assuming that the coin is fair)

therefore

P(X=x)= 3!/[(3-x)!*x!)*(1/2)^(3-x) * (1/2)^x = 3!/[(3-x)!*x!) * (1/2)³ = 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])

P(X=x)= 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])   , for x=[0,1,2,3]

for x=0 and x=3 → P(X)=3/4 * (1/[3!*0!)]) = 1/8

for x=1 and x=2 → P(X)=3/4 * (1/[2!*1!)]) = 3/8

we can verify that is correct since the sum of all the probabilities from x=0 to x=3 is  1/8 +  3/8+ 3/8+ 1/8 = 1

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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