Answer:
If RUS > RUK, then E < F ( C )
Explanation:
RUS = annual risk free rate in united states
RUK = annual risk free rate in United kingdom
F = futures price of $/BP for 1 year
E = spot exchange rate for $/BP
To get a higher the future price
this conditions must be met
The annual risk free rate of the united states must be higher than the annual risk free rate of the united kingdom. if this condition is met then the the British pound will have a forward premium ( F ) > ( E )
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Answer:
Due to the rise of the India's pharmaceutical industry the US pharmaceutical companies benefit by the increase in volume of sales due to the low costs of imports.
The U.S. consumers benefited from rise in Indian pharmaceutical industries, because of lower cost medications, insurance, copays as well as out of pocket expenses and greater financial flexibility that offers pharmaceuticals developed at lower research and development (R&D) cost.
Explanation:
Due to the rise of the India's pharmaceutical industry the US pharmaceutical companies benefit by the increase in volume of sales due to the low costs of imports.
The U.S. consumers benefited from rise in Indian pharmaceutical industries, because of lower cost medications, insurance, copays as well as out of pocket expenses and greater financial flexibility that offers pharmaceuticals developed at lower research and development (R&D) cost.
The U.S. pharmaceutical companies have major benefits from India because the people from India see others inputs instead of the goals for themselves and America is seen as an individualistic culture and there is lower power distance in America due to the fact that everyone is created equal which is why within America, people often to seek their own personal goals instead of the good of others.
Furthermore America is more concerned about self while India seeks to help the world globally which is why two different counties have to adapt to policies and procedures to respect exporting trade rights and this policy is known as the World Trade Organization.
Answer:The correct answer is a). $9,918.50
Explanation: In selling, the investor will use the bid price of $4.89 alongside the face value of the bill.
That is to say, the face value * (1-(bid price * no. of days)/days in a year) = 10000 * (1-(0.0489*60)/360) = $9,918.50