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andrew11 [14]
3 years ago
9

-3p+6=-12 How to solve

Mathematics
2 answers:
KonstantinChe [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

p = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

-3p+6=-12

Subtract 6 from each side

-3p+6-6=-12-6

-3p = -18

Divide each side by -3

-3p/-3 = -18/-3

p = 6

vfiekz [6]3 years ago
6 0
Subtract 6 which leaves u with -3p=-18 then divide by three on both sides to get p=6
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Find the slope of the line passing through the points<br> (-3. 7) and (2. -6).
Oksana_A [137]

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( 3 , 7 )

Step-by-step explanation:

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5 0
2 years ago
Henry is looking for the best deal on a tablet that regularly costs $829. Help him compare the price of the tablet at a stre
Maslowich

Answer:

$165.8 ;

$223.83 ;

Henry would pay less for the tablet on the website.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

Regular price = $829

On website :

80% discount off the regular price :

(100 - 80)% * regular price

20% * 829

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At store :

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(100 - 70)% * 829

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10% off sale price :

(100 - 10)% * $248.7

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Henry would pay less for the tablet on the website.

5 0
2 years ago
An insurance policy on an electrical device pays a benefit of 4000 if the device fails during the first year. The amount of the
lora16 [44]

Answer:

Expected benefit under this policy = $ 2694

Step-by-step explanation:

Given - An insurance policy on an electrical device pays a benefit of

            4000 if the device fails during the first year. The amount of the

            benefit decreases by 1000 each successive year until it reaches 0.

            If the device has not failed by the beginning of any given year, the

            probability of failure during that year is 0.4.

To find - What is the expected benefit under this policy ?

Proof -

Let us suppose that,

The benefit = y

Given that, the probability of failure during that year is 0.4

⇒Probability of non-failure = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6

Now,

If the device fail in second year , then

Probability = 0.6×0.4

If the device fail in third year, then

Probability = 0.6×0.6×0.4 = 0.6² × 0.4

Going on like this , we get

If the device is failed in n year, then

Probability = 0.6ⁿ⁻¹ × 0.4

Now,

The probability distribution is-

Benefit , x       4000       3000             2000            1000              0

P(x)                 0.4         0.6×0.4         0.6² × 0.4     0.6³ × 0.4     1 - 0.8704

                      (0.4)       (0.24)            (0.144)         (0.0864)       (0.1296)

At last year, the probability = 1 - (0.4+ 0.24+ 0.144+ 0.0864) = 1 - 0.8704

Now,

We know that,

Expected value ,

E(x) = ∑x p(x)

       = 4000(0.4) + 3000(0.24) + 2000(0.144) + 1000(0.0864) + 0(0.1296)

       = 1600 + 720 + 288 + 86.4 + 0

       = 2694.4

⇒E(x) = 2694.4 ≈ 2694

∴ we get

Expected benefit under this policy = $ 2694

5 0
2 years ago
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emmasim [6.3K]

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

20:16

Reduce the ratio to lowest terms by dividing both numbers by 4.

20:16 = 5:4

Answer: Yes

5 0
2 years ago
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