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AlladinOne [14]
3 years ago
11

What does 8,972 ÷9 =​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Neporo4naja [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

It is 4486.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Kindly help me!!!!!!
Oxana [17]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

AS we can see the lines are parallel so

2 ( 4x - 3) + 7(x + 3) = 180° ( being so - interior angles)

8x - 6° + 7x + 21° = 180°

15x + 15° = 180°

15x = 180° - 15°

15x = 165°

x = 165° / 15

Therefore x = 11°

Now

2 ( 4x - 3) = 2 ( 4 * 11° - 3°) = 2 ( 44 - 3)° = 2* 41 = 82°

7(x + 3 ) = 7 ( 11° + 3°) = 7 * 14 = 98°

4 0
3 years ago
A cake recipe requires 4 and one-half cups of flour to make 1 cake. How many cakes can be made by a baker who has 16 cups of flo
gregori [183]

Answer:

3 cakes

Step-by-step explanation:

just flow by the formula then ignore the remainder and take the whole number which is 3 then that becomes your answer good day.

3 0
2 years ago
100!!! Points
docker41 [41]
  • See the line is parallel to x axis.
  • The equation of that top is y<5

So

The range is

  • (-oo,0)U(oo,5)

So

  • -oo<y<5

Option D is correct

3 0
2 years ago
10 POINTS!
katrin2010 [14]

Answer:

A = yes

B = no

C = yes

D = no

E = yes

F = yes

Hope I helped!!!

7 0
2 years ago
Use the fact that the mean of a geometric distribution is μ= 1 p and the variance is σ2= q p2. A daily number lottery chooses th
butalik [34]

Answer:

a). The mean = 1000

     The variance = 999,000

     The standard deviation = 999.4999

b). 1000 times , loss

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean of geometric distribution is given as , $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

And the variance is given by, $\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

Given : $p=\frac{1}{1000}$

             = 0.001

The formulae of mean and variance are :

$\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

a). Mean =   $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

              = $\mu = \frac{1}{0.001}$

              = 1000

  Variance =   $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

                  = $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-0.001}{0.001^2}$

                           = 999,000

   The standard deviation is determined by the root of the variance.

    $\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^2}$

        = $\sqrt{999,000}$ = 999.4999

b). We expect to have play lottery 1000  times to win, because the mean in part (a) is 1000.

When we win the profit is 500 - 1 = 499

When we lose, the profit is -1

Expected value of the mean μ is the summation of a product of each of the possibility x with the probability P(x).

$\mu=\Sigma\ x\ P(x)= 499 \times 0.001+(-1) \times (1-0.001)$

  = $ 0.50

Since the answer is negative, we are expected to make a loss.

4 0
2 years ago
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