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Lostsunrise [7]
3 years ago
9

In which

Mathematics
1 answer:
MrRa [10]3 years ago
7 0
<span>The orthocenter is outside the triangle if it's an obtuse triangle.</span>
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Mateo bought 4.54 pounds of Fuji apples, 6.8 pounds of Red Delicious apples, and 3.7 pounds of Golden Delicious apples.
Olegator [25]

Answer: 3.1 lbs

Step-by-step explanation: Subtract the weight of the Red Delicious apples with the Golden Delicious apples to get the weight difference.

8 0
3 years ago
If someone who has a job gets 18 hours of free time every month how many years would it take to get a year of free time?​
blagie [28]

Answer:

18. x12 =216hour or 9days

5 0
4 years ago
Find the x and y for numbers 2 and. 3 thank you
OLEGan [10]

Answer:

(0, 4 ) and (2, - 4 )

Step-by-step explanation:

(2)

3x + 4y = 16 → (1)

- 3x + 2y = 8 → (2)

Adding (1) and (2) term by term will eliminate the x- term

0 + 6y = 24

6y = 24 ( divide both sides by 6 )

y = 4

Substitute y = 4 into either of the 2 equations and solve for x

Substituting into (1)

3x + 4(4) = 16

3x + 16 = 16 ( subtract 16 from both sides )

3x = 0 , then

x = 0

solution is (0, 4 )

(3)

2x - 4y = 20 → (1)

5x + 4y = - 6 → (2)

Adding (1) and (2) term by term will eliminate the y- term

7x + 0 = 14

7x = 14 ( divide both sides by 7 )

x = 2

Substitute x = 2 into either of the 2 equations and solve for y

Substituting into (2)

5(2) + 4y = - 6

10 + 4y = - 6 ( subtract 10 from both sides )

4y = - 16 ( divide both sides by 4 )

y = - 4

solution is (2, - 4 )

5 0
3 years ago
Help with these please!
m_a_m_a [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Let f(x) = (x − 1)2, g(x) = e−2x, and h(x) = 1 + ln(1 − 2x). (a) Find the linearizations of f, g, and h at a = 0. What do you no
sweet [91]

Answer:

Lf(x) = Lg(x) = Lh(x) =  1 - 2x

value of the functions and their derivative are the same at x = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

f(x) = (x − 1)^2,  

g(x) = e^−2x ,  

h(x) = 1 + ln(1 − 2x).

a) Determine Linearization of  f, g and h  at a = 0

L(x) = f (a) + f'(a) (x-a)  ( linearization of <em>f</em> at <em>a</em> )

<u>for f(x) = (x − 1)^2   </u>

f'(x ) = 2( x - 1 )

at x = 0

f' = -2  

hence the Linearization at a = 0

Lf (x) = f(0) + f'(0) ( x - 0 )

Lf (x) = 1 -2 ( x - 0 ) = 1 - 2x

<u>For g(x) = e^−2x </u>

g'(x) = -2e^-2x

at x = 0

g(0) = 1

g'(0) = -2e^0 = -2

hence linearization at a = 0

Lg(x) = g ( 0 ) + g' (0) (x - 0 )

Lg(x) = 1 - 2x

<u>For h(x) = 1 + ln(1 − 2x).</u>

h'(x) =  -2 / ( 1 - 2x )

at x = 0

h(0) = 1

h'(0) = -2

hence linearization at a = 0

Lh(x) = h(0) + h'(0) (x-0)

        = 1 - 2x

<em>Observation and reason</em>

The Linearization is the same in every function i.e. Lf(x) = Lg(x) = Lh(x) this is because the value of the functions and their derivative are the same at x = 0

8 0
3 years ago
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