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alisha [4.7K]
3 years ago
6

1. Assume you are planning to invest $200 each year for four years and will earn 8 percent per year. Determine the future value

of this annuity due problem if your first $200 is invested now.
Business
2 answers:
Virty [35]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The future value of the $200 invested yearly for 4 years at 8% is $973.32

Explanation:

The future value of an immediate annuity is given by the formula = (1+r)*[P*((1+r)^n-1)/r]

P=is the periodic payment of $200

r=rate of return=8 percent

n=number of years=4

By slotting the variables into the formula we have:

Fv=(1+0.08)*(200*((1+0.08)^4-1)/0.08)

FV=$973.32

Judging by the concept of time value of money, it is expected that the sum invested at interest would have been much more at maturity of the investment as $1 today should give a lot more than $1 in future.

kari74 [83]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$242.10

Explanation:P= C (1+(R/N)) ^T

P= Future Value  

C= Amount invested/ present value =$200

R= interest rate of invested amount = 8%

N= periods invested per year = 1

T= the number of years the amount is invested times by the number of periods invested per year. = 4years

Substitute the above values to the formulae P=C(1+(R/N))^T

Then you get :P=200(1+0.08)^4 thereafter you compute this on a calculator as value n=1 and T= 4*1= 4, then you get the below value of $242.097792 which is rounded off to the bottom answer of

P=$242.10

for the problem you solve for P given the other values which you substitute on the formula given above as it is mentioned that the interest is awarded annually. The number of periods n is 1 because it is annually compounded and the investment earns interest on interest because there is no withdrawal being don over the years in between being invested.

By using this formula you are showing that after a year if you invest $200 with an interest rate of 8% it will be $216 then this amount plus interest for year 1. $216 will be reinvested to earn an interest of 8% for the second year which the end vale will be $233.28. For the third year again the second years amount with its interest will be reinvested for 8% interest for the third year therefore calculated as $233.28*1.08= $251.94. then for the last 4th year we invest the third years amount at an interest rate of 8% which will be calculated as $251.9424*1.08=  $272.097792 then we round off to two decimal places for the final answer $272.10. That is how we got to the final answer.

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What single investment made today, earning 12% annual interest, will be worth $6,000 at the end of 6 years? b. What is the prese
ankoles [38]

Answer:

The results a-c  are the same $3,039.79  

However, the rate of return is given different names in each of the scenario.

In the first scenario, it was named annual interest which implies rate of return on an investment.

Annual interest is the same as discount rate because discounting an amount means stating in today's terms,which also applies to the amount to be invested when the future cash flow repayable is known, the amount to be invested can be brought back to equivalent amount today by discounting.

Finally, opportunity cost means the interest rate forgone by choosing to invest in one security,which is also the desirable rate of return convincing enough for the investment to be made.

A rate of return can be tagged annual interest, opportunity cost or discount rate,they are synonymous.

Explanation:

a.

The $6000 is the future value, the unknown is present value.

PV=FV*(1+r)^-N

r is the rate of return of 12% while N is 6 years

PV=$6000*(1+12%)^-6

PV=$3,039.79

b.the requirement also is PV with FV of $6,000 with discount rate of 12%,that rate of return,with N being 6 years

PV=$6000*(1+12%)^-6  

PV=$ 3,039.79  

c,The most to be paid for $6,000 with an opportunity cost of $12% is given below;

PV=$6000*(1+12%)^-6

    =$3,039.79  

4 0
3 years ago
ABC Services reported the following transactions for September, 2013. A) The owner opened the business with a capital contributi
NemiM [27]

Answer:

ABC Services

The total liabilities at the end of September, 2013

= $9,000

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Capital contribution = $23,500

Equipment = $11,500

Cash payment for equipment = $2,500

Note payable on equipment = $9,000

Insurance expense paid = $1,350

Utility expense paid = $980

Rent paid = $2,000

Sales = $12,000

Cash Sales = $7,200 (60% of $12,000)

Credit Sales = $4,800 (40% of $12,000)

Office furniture paid = $9,700

Therefore, total liabilities at the end of September, 2013 = $9,000.  This represents the note payable for the office equipment purchased in B.

8 0
2 years ago
When a tax distorts incentives to buyers and sellers so that fewer goods are produced and sold, the tax has.
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

When a tax distorts incentives to buyers and sellers so that fewer goods are produced and sold, the tax has caused a deadweight loss.

<h3>What is meant by deadweight loss?</h3>
  • The gap between the production and consumption of any given good or service, including taxes, is referred to as deadweight loss in economics. Deadweight loss is most frequently detected when the quantity generated compared to the quantity consumed deviates from the ideal surplus concentration.
  • Overproduction of commodities results in a loss of money. For instance, a baker might only sell 80 of the 100 loaves of bread they produce. There will be a deadweight loss since the 20 remaining loaves will become moldy and dry, and they will need to be thrown away.
  • The loss in economic activity that results when the market pricing of products or services change negatively affects consumers and businesses is referred to as deadweight loss.
  • You need to know the change in price and the change in quantity demanded in order to compute deadweight loss. Deadweight Loss is calculated using the following formula:. 5 * (P2 - P1) * (Q1 - Q2).

When a tax distorts incentives to buyers and sellers so that fewer goods are produced and sold, the tax has caused a deadweight loss.

To learn more about deadweight loss, refer to:

brainly.com/question/21335704

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
Downward influence is best achieved through
jonny [76]

Answer:

C- an inspiring vision

Explanation:

Downward influence is the ability to influence employees lower than you. This is best achieved through an inspiring vision. By articulating a clear vision, you help people see the end goal and move toward it. You often don’t need to specify exactly what needs to be done to get there—people will be able to figure it out on their own. An inspiring vision builds buy-in and gets people moving in the same direction.

7 0
3 years ago
One year ago, you purchased 500 shares of stock for $22 a share. The stock pays $0.32 a share in dividends each year. Today, you
galben [10]

Answer:

no option is correct

long term capital gains = ($24.50 - $22) x 500 = $1,250

dividend income = $0.32 x 500 = $160

total return = $1,410

Maybe your teacher is asking about long term capital gains only. If that is the case, then option A. $1,250 is correct

Explanation:

total return = ending value - initial value + dividends received = (500 x $24.50) - (500 x $22) + (500 x $0.32) = $12,250 - $11,000 + $160 = $1,410

holding period return = (ending value - initial value + dividends received) / initial value = $1,410 / $11,000 = 0.1282 = 12.82%

8 0
2 years ago
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