Answer:
10 candy bars
Step-by-step explanation:
Since each of his friends needs a candy bar, you need to multiply 6 and 1 ⅔ together.
First, convert 1 ⅔ into an improper fraction: this gives us ⁵⁄₃.
Next, multiply ⁶⁄₁ and ⁵⁄₃ together. To do this, you can visualize 6 as ⁶⁄₁ (which is the same thing). Now you have ⁶⁄₁ x ⁵⁄₃.
<u>Simplify:</u>
The 6 in the numerator and the 3 in the denominator cancel out. This gives us ²⁄₁ x ⁵⁄₁ , which is 2 x 5.
2 x 5 = 10
The missing justification in the proof is
<span>B) Substitution property of equality
The expression for sin</span>² x and cos² x is substituted to the other side of the equation. Since sin x = a/c, then sin² x = a²/c². Similarly, since cos x = b/c, then cos² x = b²/c². Adding to two results to the third statement.
Answer:
214....
Step-by-step explanation:
If the question is : solve 4 by 216 raise to minus 2 by 3 + 1 by 256 raise to minus 3 by 4 + 2 by 243 raise to minus 1 by 5
The given expression can be written as:
4/(216)-2/3+1/(256)-3/4+2/(243)-1/5
This expression has three terms.
Notice that the exponents are negative:
We will change the division into multiplication so that the exponents will become positive;
4*(216)^2/3+ 1*(256)^3/4+ 2*(243)^1/5
If we multiply 6 three times it will give us 6^3=6*6*6=216
If we multiply 4 four times it will give us 4^4=4*4*4*4=256
If we multiply 3 five times it will give us 3^5=3*3*3*3*3=243
So we will write it as:
=4*(6^3)^2/3+ 1(4^4)3/4 +2(3^5)^1/5
=4(6)^2+(4)^3+2(3)
=4*36+64+6
=144+64+6
=214
The answer is 214....
The answer for this problem would be : true
The value of WACC is 6.72%
<h3>what is WACC?</h3>
WACC is calculated by multiplying the cost of each capital source (debt and equity) by its relevant weight by market value, and then adding the products together to determine the total.
WACC=[(Market value of Equity*cost of equity+ Market value of Debt* post tax cost of debt)/(Market value of Equity+ Market value of Debt)]
Market value of Equity= 40,000*$85=$3,400,000
Cost of equity=Risk free return+ Beta equity*market retrun
=4 +0.67*15
=7.35
Market value of Debt
=2000*1105.38
=2,210,760
Post tax rate of debt
=9*80(1-20)
=0.0576= 5.76%
WACC= [$3,400,000* 7.35+ 2,210,760 * 5.76%]\ $3,400,000+2,210,760
=6.72%
Learn more about this concept here:
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