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IRISSAK [1]
3 years ago
10

28 inches to centimeters

Mathematics
1 answer:
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

  71.12 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 2.54 cm per inch, so your conversion is ...

  (28 in)(2.54 cm/in) = 28×2.54 cm = 71.12 cm . . . (exactly)

__

As with all units conversions, you multiply by a fraction whose value is 1. That is, the conversion factor has the same value in the numerator as in the denominator. You choose those values so the numerator has the units you want, and the denominator has the units you want to convert from. Here, that conversion factor is ...

  \dfrac{2.54\,\text{cm}}{1\,\text{in}}

_____

If you're looking for assistance for your units conversions, a search box is generally all you need.

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xeze [42]
I think the answers would be 2
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An unbalanced die is manufactured so that there is a 20% chance of rolling a “six." The die is rolled 6
SIZIF [17.4K]

Answer:

Probability of rolling at least 4 sixes is 0.01696.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that an unbalanced die is manufactured so that there is a 20% chance of rolling a “six." The die is rolled 6  times.

The above situation can be represented through binomial distribution;

P(X = r) = \binom{n}{r} \times p^{r} \times (1-p)^{n-r};x=0,1,2,3,.......

where, n = number trials (samples) taken = 6 trials

            r = number of success = at least 4

           p = probability of success which in our question is probability of

                 rolling a “six", i.e; p = 0.20

<u><em>Let X = Number of sixes on a die</em></u>

So, X ~ Binom(n = 6, p = 0.20)

Now, Probability of rolling at least 4 sixes is given by = P(X \geq 4)

P(X \geq 4) = P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6)

=  \binom{6}{4} \times 0.20^{4} \times (1-0.20)^{6-4}+\binom{6}{5} \times 0.20^{5} \times (1-0.20)^{6-5}+\binom{6}{6} \times 0.20^{6} \times (1-0.20)^{6-6}

=  15 \times 0.20^{4} \times 0.80^{2}+6 \times 0.20^{5} \times 0.80^{1}+1 \times 0.20^{6} \times 0.80^{0}

=  0.0154 + 0.00154 + 0.000064

=  0.01696

<em />

Therefore, probability of rolling at least 4 sixes is 0.01696.

8 0
3 years ago
Rebecca and dan are biking in a national park for three days they rode 5 3/4 hours the first day and 6 4/5 hours the second day
likoan [24]

Answer:

Rebecca and Dan need to ride 7\frac{9}{20}\ hrs. on the third day in order to achieve goal of biking.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Goal of Total number of hours of biking in park =20 hours.

Number of hours rode on first day = 5\frac34 \ hrs.

So we will convert mixed fraction into Improper fraction.

Now we can say that;

To Convert mixed fraction into Improper fraction multiply the whole number part by the fraction's denominator and then add that to the numerator,then write the result on top of the denominator.

5\frac34 \ hrs. can be Rewritten as \frac{23}{4}\ hrs

Number of hours rode on first day = \frac{23}{4}\ hrs

Also Given:

Number of hours rode on second day = 6\frac45 \ hrs

6\frac45 \ hrs can be Rewritten as \frac{34}{5}\ hrs.

Number of hours rode on second day = \frac{34}{5}\ hrs.

We need to find Number of hours she need to ride on third day in order to achieve the goal.

Solution:

Now we can say that;

Number of hours she need to ride on third day can be calculated by subtracting Number of hours rode on first day and Number of hours rode on second day from the Goal of Total number of hours of biking in park.

framing in equation form we get;

Number of hours she need to ride on third day = 20-\frac{23}{4}-\frac{34}{5}

Now we will use LCM to make the denominators common we get;

Number of hours she need to ride on third day = \frac{20\times20}{20}-\frac{23\times5}{4\times5}-\frac{34\times4}{5\times4}= \frac{400}{20}-\frac{115}{20}-\frac{136}{20}

Now denominators are common so we will solve the numerator we get;

Number of hours she need to ride on third day =\frac{400-115-136}{20}=\frac{149}{20}\ hrs \ \ Or \ \ 7\frac{9}{20}\ hrs.

Hence Rebecca and Dan need to ride 7\frac{9}{20}\ hrs. on the third day in order to achieve goal of biking.

8 0
3 years ago
Help please!!!!!!!!!!!!
Nady [450]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

a. 1 & 2

b. 3 & 5

c. 2/15

d. 2/5 x 5/3

e. 10/15= 2/3

8 0
3 years ago
The table shows the charges for using an internet service. Nicholas use the internet service for 16 hours and 40 Minutes last mo
yanalaym [24]

Answer:

<u>A. Nicholas will have to pay less using plan A</u>

<u>B. He will pay US$ 4 less than plan B</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's compare how much Nicholas will pay on internet service in Plan A and plan B, after using it 16 hours and 40 minutes.

Plan A

Up to 10 hours = US$ 6

Every subsequent 1/2 hour: $1

10 hours + 14 (1/2 hour)

<u>Nicholas will pay 6 + 14 * 1 = US$ 20</u>

Plan B

Up to 12 hours = US$ 4

Every subsequent 1/2 hour: $2

12 hours + 10 (1/2 hour)

<u>Nicholas will pay 4 + 2 * 10 = 24</u>

7 0
3 years ago
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