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storchak [24]
3 years ago
13

Which logical fallacy is most clearly used in the following sentence?

English
1 answer:
steposvetlana [31]3 years ago
5 0

The answer is B: ad hominem.

A logical fallacy is a failed form of argument that reaches a conclusion by means of invalid proofs that are not justified. Ad hominem (which could be translated as “against the man”) is one such logical fallacy and it involves an argument based on a direct attack of a person´s character or circumstances when they are not related to the content of the argument itself.

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What is the authors main purpose of the first three paragraphs of the article?
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1Where is Maya going for the summer?<br> Spain<br> Mexico<br> Argentina<br> Brazil
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brazil

Explanation:

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3 years ago
What is suppliant mean
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7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
John, who has been playing golf for only two years, is not very good at it. One day, when he was playing alone, the foursome in
ollegr [7]

Answer:

A). He will not perform well due to increased arousal.

Explanation:

Arousal is described as the physiological state of being attentive, wake, or reactive to stimuli that result in increased heart rate and blood pressure along with the readiness or activeness to respond.

As per the given question, 'John's would not be to perform well due to the increased arousal' as he would be in an extreme state of sensory alertness with the elevated heartbeats and blood pressure that would burden him to perform well and make him nervous. This would mar him from focusing on the sport as his entire conscious sense is devoted to 'being alert'. Thus, <u>option A</u> is the correct answer.

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