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xxMikexx [17]
3 years ago
12

Which of the following is included in the investment component of GDP? a. households’ purchases of newly constructed homes.

Business
1 answer:
Anni [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

"D" is the correct answer.

All of these.

Explanation:

NOTE: in this question, options part is missing, The option for the following question is :

b. Additions to business stock

c. firms' buy of equipment

d. All of the above

Gross Domestic Product is the overall financial or retail value of all completed production of goods and services in a specific period within a country.

formula to calculate GDP is as follow

GDP = C + I + G + NX

where C stands for Private consumption.

           I stands for investment

          G stands for government consummation

          NX for net export (total export - total import)

GDP use to calculate countries total gross production during a particular year.

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Which form of mass media was developed from a defense department project?
Kazeer [188]
The internet was the form of mass media developed from a defense department project
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
At the beginning of 2018, the balance in Jackson Enterprises' Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts was $31,800. During 2018, the
Colt1911 [192]

Answer:

The answer is: Credit record to Accounts Receivable account

Explanation:

The Accounts Receivable account is an asset, usually it should be a current asset since it should be collected within a one year period. When assets increase, a debit record should be made. But in this case, the asset is decreasing since bad debts reduce the Accounts Receivable account. When an asset decreases, a credit record should be made.

6 0
3 years ago
If the net present value of the payments at the time of the leases was 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the
Aliun [14]

Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

Examples of situations that individually or in combination would normally lead to a lease being  classified as a finance lease are:

(a) the lease transfers ownership of the underlying asset to the lessee by the end of the lease  term;

(b) the lessee has the option to purchase the underlying asset at a price that is expected to be  sufficiently lower than the fair value at the date the option becomes exercisable for it to be  reasonably certain, at the inception date, that the option will be exercised;

(c) the lease term is for the major part of the economic life of the underlying asset even if title is  not transferred;

(d) at the inception date, the present value of the lease payments amounts to at least substantially  all of the fair value of the underlying asset; and

(e) the underlying asset is of such a specialised nature that only the lessee can use it without major  modifications.

Since at the time of lease the net present value of the payments is 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the asset was 70% at the end of the lease term and also the title of asset shall not be transferred to lessee at the end of lease term, therefore the lease shall not be classify as finance lease and it shall be classified as operating lease so the answer is A. True

4 0
3 years ago
​greg, a​ landscaper, is planning on opening his own landscaping company. he currently earns​ $40,000 per year working for his u
Oxana [17]

Answer:

The total economic cost is $40,500 per year

Explanation:

The total economic cost per year is equal to the sum of:

* The opportunity cost relating to sacrificing the current work Greg is working on which is equal to his yearly salary of : $40,00.

* The opportunity cost relating to sacrificing the interest income earned on $10,000 saving, which he is now used for purchasing equipment, which is calculated as: 10,000 * current rate of savings = 10,000* 5% = $500 ( total cost of equipment is not included because e could sell the equipment for what he​ paid later on).

=> So, total economic cost per year is $40,000 + $500 = $40,500.

5 0
3 years ago
Why will the coefficient for the price elasticity of demand always be a negative number?
Anna [14]

The coefficient for the <u>price elasticity of demand</u> is normally negative because the <u>demand curve</u><u> is </u><u>downward sloping. </u>

Price elasticity of demand:

  • Shows how quantity demanded changes as a result of a change in price
  • Is calculated by dividing the change in quantity demanded by the change in price

For normal goods, an increase in price leads to a decrease in quantity demanded. This is why the demand curve is downward sloping. If price goes up, quantity demanded will go down.

This change in quantity demanded will be shown as a negative number which means that when it is divided by the change in price, the price elasticity coefficient will be negative.

In conclusion, the price elasticity coefficient is usually negative because the demand is negative when prices increase.

<em>Find out more at brainly.com/question/24261490.</em>

8 0
3 years ago
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