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Nata [24]
3 years ago
11

What is the solution to the division problem? Enter numbers in the boxes to complete the problem.​

Mathematics
2 answers:
yuradex [85]3 years ago
5 0

Start with the first number inside the division bracket (4). Because 8 can't go into 4, include the second number in the division bracket (1). Because 8 can go into 41 with a whole number, put a 5 above the bracket and subtract the value of 5*8 from 41. You should get 1. Then, bring down the 6 to form 16. Because 8 can evenly go into 16 twice, put a 2 next to the 5 above the bracket. Multiply 2*8 and subtract the value from 16.

yanalaym [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:52

Step-by-step explanation:

How many times can 8 go into 4. 0 so how many times can 8 go into 41 without going over 41.

8 x 5 = 40

41 - 40 = 1

bring down the next number which is 6

16 how many times can 8 go into 16, 2.

8 x 2 = 16

16 - 16 = 0

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Y=12/1-n solve for n
Goshia [24]

Answer:

Physics formulas, chemical structures, chemical conversions and reactions. ... solve y' = y^2 x ... prove by induction sum of j from 1 to n = n(n+1)/2 for n>0.

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Find the product. Tell what strategy you used. 8×25×23=
Novosadov [1.4K]
The answer is4600. I got this by multiplying 25 and 23 which is 575 then you multiply that by 8 which gives you 4600.

5 0
2 years ago
How many litters of apple syrup and water did she use in the ratio of 2:3 and made 1800 ml of such fruit juice
sp2606 [1]

Answer:

720 mL ; 1080 ml

Step-by-step explanation:

Givenn:

Apple syrup : water = 2 : 3

Fruit juice volume made using the ratio above = 1800 ml

Sum of ratio = 2 + 3 = 5

Litres of Apple syrup :

(Syrup ratio / total) * total volume of fruit

(2 / 5) * 1800

= 0.4 * 1800

= 720 ml

Litres of water :

(water ratio / total) * total volume of fruit

(3 / 5) * 1800

= 0.6 * 1800

= 1080 ml

5 0
3 years ago
Can you help me in my math work
Ket [755]

The LCM of 18 and 24 using the prime-factorization method is <u>72</u>.

The LCM of 27, 81, and 54, using the division method is <u>162</u>.

In the first question, we are asked to find the LCM of the given numbers using the prime factorization method.

(i) 18, 24.

Prime factorization gives:

18 = 2*3², and 24 = 2³*3.

The LCM is the product of the highest power of each prime factor.

Thus, LCM = 2³*3² = 8*9 = 72.

Thus, the LCM of 18 and 24 using the prime-factorization method is <u>72</u>.

Doing similarly for other sub-parts, The LCM of:

(ii) 16, 40 is 80.

(iii) 30, 36 is 180.

(iv) 28, 44 is 308.

(v) 20, 32 is 160.

(vi) 20, 135 is 540.

(vii) 45, 75 is 225.

(viii) 36, 84 is 252.

(ix) 12, 18, 24 is 72.

(x) 25, 35, 45 is 1575.

(xi) 9, 15, 21 is 315.

(xii) 25, 50, 75 is 150.

In the second question, we are asked to find the LCM of the given numbers, using the division method.

(i) 27, 81, 54.

The division method gives:

\underline{2|27,81,54}\\\underline{3|27,81,27}\\\underline{3|9,27,9}\\\underline {3|3,9,3}\\\underline{3|1,3,1}\\{1|1,1,1}

The LCM is the product of all the numbers used for division.

LCM = 2*3*3*3*3*1 = 162.

Thus, the LCM of 27, 81, and 54, using the division method is <u>162</u>.

Doing similarly for other sub-parts, The LCM of:

(ii) 18, 45, 63 is 630.

(iii) 35, 55, 100 is 7700.

(iv) 210, 140, 315 is 1260.

(v) 112, 120, 150 is 8400.

(vi) 144, 180, 300 is 3600.

Learn more about LCM at

brainly.com/question/420337

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
Suppose the local Barons team wins every game they play with a probability of 0.75. What is the probability that the Barons woul
kondaur [170]

Answer:

The probability is 0.173

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability is of winning is 0.75 = 75/100 = 3/4

This means that the probability of losing is 0.25 = 25/100 = 1/4

So if they are two win 4 games, they will lose three

We can get this probability using the Bernoulli approximation of the binomial theorem

So here, we have

P(X = 4) = 7 C 4 * 0.75^4 * 0.25^3

= 0.173034667969

which is approximately 0.1730

6 0
2 years ago
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