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Natasha2012 [34]
2 years ago
7

wendy is selling bags of chips. she earns $108.00 by selling 72 bags of chips. if each bag of chips is the same price, how many

more bags of chips would wendy need to sell to earn a total of $126.00?
Mathematics
1 answer:
stiv31 [10]2 years ago
8 0
I think 84

$108.00 divided by 72 is $1.50
So 1 bag is $1.50
$126.00 divided by $1.50 is 84
So 84 bags of chips
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The answer to this question is 64mm


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A certain brand of dinnerware set comes in three colors: red, white, and blue. Twenty percent of customers order the red set, 45
denis23 [38]

Answer:

a) 0.20

b) 0.45

c) 0.65

d) Yes

e) Yes

f) Z = X + Y (except when X = 1 and Y = 1)

This is because the successes of X and Y are mutually exclusive events but their failures aren't. X and Y cannot both be 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of a red set = 20% = 0.20

Probability of a white set = 45% = 0.45

Probability of a blue set = 35% = 0.35

Probability of the single set being a red or white set = 20% + 45% = 65% = 0.65

P(X=1) = 0.20, P(X=0) = 1 - 0.2 = 0.80

P(Y=1) = 0.45, P(Y=0) = 1 - 0.45 = 0.55

P(Z=1) = 0.65, P(Z=0) = 1 - 0.65 = 0.35

a) pX = P(X=1) = 0.20

b) pY = P(Y=1) = 0.45

c) pZ = P(Z=1) = 0.65

d) Since only one order is being considered at a time, it isn't possible to order red & white set in a single set, hence, both X and Y cannot both be successes (equal to 1) at the same time. But they can both be failures (both equal to 0) if a blue set is ordered. The successes of X and Y are mutually exclusive events but their failures aren't

e) Is pZ = pX + pY

pX = 0.2, pY = 0.45, pZ = 0.65

Hence, this statement is correct!

f) Z = X + Y

Let's check all the probabilities

when X = 1 and Y = 1, Z = 1

1 ≠ 1 + 1

when X = 0 and Y = 1, Z = 1

1 = 0 + 1

when X = 1 and Y = 0, Z = 1

1 = 1 + 0

when X = 0 and Y = 0, Z = 0

0 = 0 + 0

Hence, Z = X + Y (except when X = 1 and Y = 1)

This is because the success of X and Y are mutually exclusive events but their failures aren't.

8 0
3 years ago
Ross chose a card at random from a deck of 52 cards. Ross replaced the card and then chose a second card. What is the probabilit
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Answer:

\frac{1}{208}

Step-by-step explanation:

We have been given that Ross chose a card at random from a deck of 52 cards. Ross replaced the card and then chose a second card.

Let us find probability of getting a club.

\text{ Probability of getting a club}=\frac{13}{52} =\frac{1}{4}

Now let us find probability of getting the ace of spades.

\text{ Probability of getting ace of spades}=\frac{1}{52}

Now let us multiply these to find probability of getting a club and ace of spades.      

\text{ Probability of getting a club and then ace of spades}=\frac{1}{4}*\frac{1}{52}=\frac{1}{208}

Therefore, probability of getting a club and then the ace of spades \frac{1}{208}.

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How many decimeters are in 3.5 dekameters? Use the metric table to help answer the question.
nataly862011 [7]

it’s 350 or B. hope this helps! :)

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