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Lostsunrise [7]
3 years ago
10

When the economy suffers a permanent negative supply shock and the central bank does not respond by changing the autonomous comp

onent of monetary policy, then:______.
a. inflation will be lower.
b. output will be at its potential.
c. output will be unchanged.
d. inflation will be unchanged.
Business
1 answer:
Gnom [1K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Output will be lower

Explanation:

Supply shock is an economic event that occurs because of sudden changes in the supply of goods and services within an economy.

A negative supply shock will shift the SRAS to the left and it will increase the price of the good and decrease the quantity, the new equilibrium will be at lower output and higher inflation.

When the economy suffers a permanent negative supply shock, the supply may keep on increasing or decreasing rapidly.

If the central bank does not respond by changing the autonomous component of monetary policy, then the output will be lower.

This is because permanent supply shock will lead to higher prices which disrupts the production and hence the output falls.

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The capital accounts of Harrison and Marti have balances of $160,000 and $110,000, respectively, on January 1, the beginning of
blagie [28]

Answer:

b.$216,000

Explanation:

The computation of the balance in the capital account for Harrison is shown below:

= Opening balance + additional invested amount - withdrawn amount + net income distributed

= $160,000 + $20,000 - $96,000 + $132,000

= $216,000

We assume that the net income is equally distributed.

Since we have to determine for the Harrison only so we ignored the Marti data which is given in the question

4 0
4 years ago
1. Antonio orders 50 bottles of wine from a French distributor at a price of $30 per bottle. 2. A U.S. company sells 200 spark p
vodomira [7]

Answer: consumption= 2500, imports = 1500, exports = 1000, net exports= -500, GDP = 2000 , investment =0, government purchases =0

Explanation:

this question is incomplete. in complete question we have to calculate consumption (C), investment (I), government purchases (G), imports (M), exports (X), net exports  (NX) and gross domestic product (GDP) using the given information and abbreviation.

1. Antonio order will be considered as imports which are 50*30=1500

2. exports by US company spark plug selling to Korean are considered  as X  which are 200*5= 1000

3. net exports = exports - imports

NX = X - M ,

-500  = 1000-1500

in a nutshell, the economy is in deficit of 500

total C is 1500+ 1000=2500

GDP = C+ I + G + NX

GDP =2500 +0+0+ (-500)

GDP =2000

GDP is the value of final good and services which are produced within the boundary of an economy .

this question is about open economy because it includes exports and imports . this freely trade between different countries is considered as open economy .

no information is given for  investment (I), government purchases (G) so these will be taken as 0

8 0
4 years ago
Which of the following statements regarding the direct and indirect methods of reporting cash flow from operating activities is
erica [24]

Answer:

a) although both methods result in the same net increase or decrease in cash for the year, net cash flow from operating activities will be different under the two methods

Explanation:

Using the indirect method, computation of cash flow from operating activities begins with net income as shown in the income statement. The FASB also permits both methods but has expressed a preference for the direct method and the direct method shows the specific cash inflow and outflows for each operating activities of the business.

This option that does not align with the differences between the 2 methods is that the cash flow reported under direct and indirect method for operating activities would always remain the same notwithstanding the method used.

3 0
3 years ago
Why do people hate taxes?
NikAS [45]
Because they hate math and money
6 0
3 years ago
You have just received a windfall from an investment you made in a​ friend's business. He will be paying you $ 10 comma 000 at t
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

a.The present value is $55.39 comma 000

b.The future value is $61.05 comma 000

Explanation:

a. the present value for this windfall of the investment will be calculated using the present value formula which is Pv = Fv/(1+i)^n

Pv depicts the present value which we are looking for,

Fv is the future value of the payments the individual receives which are $10 comma 0000 , $20 comma 000 and $30 comma 000.

i represents the interest rate per period which is 3.5%.

then we substitute these values on the above mentioned formula (values in comma 000):

Pv=  $10/(1+3.5%) + $20/(1+3.5%)^2 + $30/(1+3.5%)^3

      =$55.39 comma 000

that is the present value so we actually added the different present values for the amounts of the future values cause we get them in different times and they not the same.

b. we will use the future value formula to get the future value of the windfall which is Fv = Pv(1+i)^n

which the values still represent the above mentioned values so we substitute ( values in comma 000):

Fv= $10(1+3.5%)^1 + $20(1+3.5%)^2+ $30

    = $61.05 comma 000

we add future values for the three different amounts but we are told that we need to calculate the windfall value at the date of the last payment so $30 comma 000 will not accumulate any interest because we they will do that payment on the day they say we must calculate the value of the windfall on.

8 0
3 years ago
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