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FrozenT [24]
3 years ago
6

In​ class, we discussed the differences between a contribution income statement versus the traditional approach​ (absorption whi

ch is​ GAAP). There is no difference in operating income between the​ two: ​• If it is a merchandising company since all cost of goods sold are variable. ​• Manufacturing company when the units produced are the same as the units sold. ​However, the operating income will be different for a manufacturing company when the units produced do NOT equal the units sold. If a manufacturing company sells a lot of inventory that was produced in a previous​ year, the fixed manufacturing overhead associated with the inventory that was on the balance sheet will be expensed under the traditional approach and under the contribution margin approach the fixed manufacturing overhead with the units sold was expensed in the previous year since fixed expenses are expensed when incurred. ​Therefore, based on the previous​ paragraph, when inventory levels​ decrease, under which approach will show a higher operating​ income?
Business
1 answer:
Irina-Kira [14]3 years ago
5 0
B) Contribution margin
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What are examples of the substitution effect and/or real-income effect?
Arlecino [84]

The options available are:

A. After subscription prices in the cable TV market fall, customers also purchase higher-speed Internet service.

B. Julie usually buys generic cereal because it is cheaper. One day she notices one of the brand-name products falls in price, so she decides to buy it.

C. Movie ticket prices plummet to $1, so you cancel your Netflix subscription in favor of attending movies at the theater. In addition, the cheap tickets leave you with extra money for concessions.

D. Kyle notices the cost of premium peanut butter has fallen. He considers this and then purchases less bread.

Answer:

The answers are A, B, and C

Explanation:

The options available are:

Option A. "After subscription prices in the cable TV market fall, customers also purchase higher-speed Internet service" is a perfect example of the real income effect.

Option B. "Julie usually buys generic cereal because it is cheaper. One day she notices one of the brand-name products falls in price, so she decides to buy it," is an example of the substitution effect.

While Option C. "Movie ticket prices plummet to $1, so you cancel your Netflix subscription in favor of attending movies at the theater. In addition, the cheap tickets leave you with extra money for concessions, " is an example of both the substitution and real-income effects

However, option D example "Kyle notices the cost of premium peanut butter has fallen. He considers this and then purchases less bread, " does not fit any of the substitution and real-income effects.

8 0
4 years ago
Kelly Slater owns a parcel of land in Palm Springs and is considering two possible development options which both use his signat
expeople1 [14]

Answer:

d. Choose Option B because it has a higher NPV

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

For Option A:

Investment = $10 million

Present Value of cash flows = Cash flow ÷ Discounting rate

= $2 ÷  10%

= $20 million

Now

NPV = $20 - $10

= $10 million

We know that

IRR is the rate at which the NPV will be zero

So,  2 ÷  r - 10 = 0

r = 20%

For Option B:

Investment = $50 million

Present Value of cash flows = $6.5 ÷  10% = $65 million

NPV = $65 - $50 = $15 million

we know that

IRR is the rate at which the NPV will be zero

So, 6.5÷ r -50 = 0

r = 13%

Based on NPV, Option B should be selected as it contains higher NPV as compared to option A.

However, Based on IRR, Option A should be chosen as it contains higher IRR and a higher IRR represent a higher profit percentage

 

7 0
3 years ago
The purpose of the Splish Brothers Division is to develop a nuclear-powered aircraft. If successful, traveling delays associated
Ber [7]

Answer: Please refer to Explanation.

Explanation:

Your question was incomplete so I attached the missing details.

The Carrying Amount of the Division has to be ascertained to move forward as it is needed in calculating the loss on Impairment. It is calculated by subtracting Goodwill from the Net Assets.

= 496 - 214

= $282 million

Calculating the Loss on impairment is done by the following formula,

= Market Price - Carrying Amount of the Division (net of Goodwill) - carrying value of Goodwill

= 335 - 282 - 214

= -$161 million.

Journal Entry

DR Loss on Impairment $161 million

CR Goodwill $161 million

(To record the loss on Impairment)

8 0
3 years ago
According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), a capital budgeting project that has a beta equal to zero should be evaluat
lara [203]

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

from the CAPM formula we can derive the statemeent as true.

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.05

market rate = 0.12

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.07

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 0

Ke= 0.05 + 0 (0.07)

Ke 0.05000

As the beta multiplies the difference between the market rate and risk-free rate a beta of zero will nulify the second part of the equation leaving only the risk-free rate. This means the portfolio is not expose to volatility

6 0
3 years ago
To help cosmetic company RedRain Inc. launch a new line of lipstick, tickets that can be redeemed for prizes are enclosed in som
Mrac [35]

Answer:

Sales Promotions

Explanation:

The reason is that the company is trying to attract its customers by providing tickets that has ability to win prices and these prices are the motivating factors for the consumer to buy these products. Other tactics also include seasanol sales discounts to sell the remainder of the stock and "Buy One and Get one Free".

6 0
4 years ago
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