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Harman [31]
3 years ago
6

For a cost to be considered allocable to a contract, it must be a cost that is incurred specifically for a contract, or a cost t

hat is beneficial to both the contract and other work, or _________________. [Identify the five bases for cost allowability.]
a. A cost that is necessary for the overall operation of the business but not directly related to a contract
b. Any cost incurred by a contractor doing business with the Government
c. Any cost that is exempt from compliance with Government and industry accounting standards
d. Any indirect cost that is not part of the manufacturing overhead cost pool
Business
1 answer:
Naily [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a. A cost that is necessary for the overall operation of the business but not directly related to a contract

Explanation:

Option B - Allocable costs cannot be considered if the contractor is doing business with the government.

Option C - If the cost is exempted, it cannot be specifically allowable for a contract, or a cost that is beneficial to both the contract and other work.

Option D - Indirect costs cannot be allowable.

Option A - It is the right answer because allowable cost should be significant for the operations with an indirect relation with the contract. If it is linked with the overall operations, it can be considered as allowable to a contract.

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Urban City wants to acquire undeveloped private land within the city limits to construct a public park. The city brings a condem
larisa [96]

This is the power of eminent domain.

<h3>What is eminent domain?</h3>

The power of a state, provincial, or national government to take private property for public use is known as eminent domain, land acquisition, compulsory purchase/acquisition, resumption, resumption/compulsory acquisition, or expropriation.

When the government acquires a home or business through eminent domain, it actually destroys value. It transfers property from a higher-value use to a lower-value use, as evidenced by the government's unwillingness to pay the price required to obtain the property voluntarily.

The term "Event of Eminent Domain" refers to any governmental authority's compulsory transfer or taking, or transfer under threat of compulsory transfer or taking, of any material property or asset owned by the Operating Company or any Project Company.

To know more about eminent domain.follow the link:

brainly.com/question/4281421

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8 0
2 years ago
A food manufacturer reports the following for two of its divisions for a recent year.
hram777 [196]

Answer:

1. 13.8% and 14.6%

2. 13.6% and 16.5%

3. 1.01 times and 0.88 times

Explanation:

The computations are shown below:

1. Return on investment = Operating Income ÷ Average invested Assets

where, average invested assets would be

= (Invested assets, beginning + Invested assets, ending) ÷ 2

For Beverage Division, it would be

= $366 ÷ {($2,696 + $2,610) ÷ 2}

= $366 ÷ $2,653

= 13.8%

For Cheese Division, it would be

= $651 ÷ {($4,489 + $4,417) ÷ 2}

= $651 ÷ $4,453

= 14.6%

2. Profit margin = (Operating income ÷ sales) × 100

For Beverage Division, it would be

= ($366 ÷ $2,698) × 100

= 13.6%

For Cheese Division, it would be

= ($651 ÷ $3,942) × 100

= 16.5%

3. Investment turnover = Sales ÷ Average Operating Assets

For Beverage Division, it would be

= $2,698 ÷ {($2,696 + $2,610) ÷ 2}

= $2,698 ÷ $2,653

= 1.01 times

For Cheese Division, it would be

= $3,942 ÷ {($4,489 + $4,417) ÷ 2}

= $3,942 ÷ $4,453

= 0.88 times

7 0
3 years ago
Under its executive stock option plan, N Corporation granted options on January 1, 2021, that permit executives to purchase 12.0
AveGali [126]

Answer:

N. Corporation

The effect on earnings in the year after the options are granted to executives is a reduction in the net income by $16 million because of the Compensation Expense that will be recorded.

The journal entry on December 31, 2021 (a year after) is:

Debit Compensation Expense $16,000,000

Credit Stock Options $16,000,000

To record compensation expense.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Options grant date = January 1, 2021

Options granted = 12.0 million shares

Options vesting date = December 31, 2023

There are 3 years before the vesting date

Fair value of the options = $4

Therefore, Total Compensation Expense = Options granted*Fair value per option

= 12,000,000 * $4

= $48,000,000

Annual compensation expense from 2021 to 2023 = $48,000,000/3

= $16,000,000

8 0
4 years ago
A protective put strategy is Multiple Choice a long call plus a short put on the same underlying asset. None of the options are
luda_lava [24]

Answer:

a long put plus a long position in the underlying asset.

Explanation:

A protective put strategy is a long put plus a long position in the underlying asset. It is a risk management strategy that makes use of options contracts which are employed by investors to protect or guard their investments against a potential loss in stocks or assets such as commodities, indexes and currencies. The protective put strategy helps to mitigate or limit risk associated with buying stocks for the first time.

Generally, the value of the underlying asset is anticipated to decrease by the buyers while the value of the underlying asset is anticipated by sellers of call options to also decrease.

Hence, considering the prospective option holder, when the exercise price is higher, it means that the call options are worth less. Also, when the exercise price is higher, it means that the put options are worth more.

6 0
3 years ago
The income inequality ratios in England and in Guatemala are roughly the same. What can explain this finding
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

This finding is explained by the fact that ratios express relationships between variables not in absolute terms but in relative terms.  The variables used for calculating the income inequality ratio in England takes into consideration the level of income distribution and the population.  These may not be equal to the level of income distribution and the population of Guatemala.  For instance, if England's income inequality ratio is 10% and Guatemala's is also 10%, it does not mean that they have the same amount of population and income distribution.  Each ratio is expressed in relation to its related variable.  England's variables cannot be used to express Guatemala's.

Explanation:

To measure inequality ratios for England and Guatemala one divides the standard deviation of the income distribution of England and Guatemala respectively by their means.  These are separate indices in value terms.

8 0
4 years ago
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