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Maurinko [17]
3 years ago
9

What is the measure of angle 1?

Mathematics
1 answer:
aleksandr82 [10.1K]3 years ago
4 0

SOLUTION: The measure of angle 1 is five less than four times the measure of angle 2. If angle 1 are two form a linear pair, what are their measures. Question 345899: The measure of angle 1 is five less than four times the measure of angle 2. If angle 1 are two form a linear pair, what are their measures.

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A landscaper builds a regular hexagonal patio in a circular garden. The area not covered by the patio will be covered in grass.
Taya2010 [7]

The area that's covered by the grass will be 7.065m²

The area of a circle is found by using the formula: = πr²

where, r = radius = 1.5m

π = 3.14

Therefore, to solve the question, we'll slot the value of the radius into the formula and this will be:

Area = πr².

Area = 3.14 × 1.5²

Area = 3.14 × 1.5 × 1.5

Area = 7.065m²

In conclusion, the area is 7.065m²

Read related link on:

brainly.com/question/24705421

7 0
3 years ago
Anna and Daniel are playing Fraction Capture. Anna is trying to find sections that add up to 3/4. She knows that 1/4+1/4+1/4=3/4
Alekssandra [29.7K]
She could use:
1/2+1/4
5 0
4 years ago
I need help ASAP snsnnsbsbsbs
anastassius [24]

Answer:

The value of a is 50°.

Step-by-step explanation:

In an isosceles triangle, 2 sides have the same lengths and same angles so we can assume that the other side of the triangle is 65°.

Given that the total angle of a triangle is 180°, so have to subtract it :

a = 180 - 65 - 65

a = 180 - 130

a = 50

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Box of 15 gadgets is known to contain 5 defective gadgets if 4 gadgets are drawn at random what is the probability of finding no
baherus [9]

To solve this problem, we make use of the Binomial Probability equation which is mathematically expressed as:

P = [n! / r! (n – r)!] p^r * q^(n – r)

where,

n = the total number of gadgets = 4

r = number of samples = 1 and 2 (since not more than 2)

p = probability of success of getting a defective gadget

q = probability of failure = 1 – p

 

Calculating for p:

p = 5 / 15 = 0.33

So,

q = 1 – 0.33 = 0.67

 

Calculating for P when r = 1:

P (r = 1) = [4! / 1! 3!] 0.33^1 * 0.67^3

P (r = 1) = 0.3970

 

 

Calculating for P when r = 2:

P (r = 2) = [4! / 2! 2!] 0.33^2 * 0.67^2

P (r = 2) = 0.2933

 

Therefore the total probability of not getting more than 2 defective gadgets is:

P = 0.3970 + 0.2933

P = 0.6903

 

Hence there is a 0.6903 chance or 69.03% probability of not getting more than 2 defective gadgets.

5 0
4 years ago
To increase an amount by 7%, what single multiplier would you use ?
Scrat [10]
You would use 1.07 for that
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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