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Roman55 [17]
4 years ago
10

Why is a firm in perfect competition a price​ taker? A firm in perfect competition is a price taker because​ _______. A. it prod

uces a tiny proportion of the total output of a particular good and buyers are well informed about the prices of other firms B. it is easier to take the price as given rather than calculate the​ profit-maximizing price C. charging a lower price than the market price is considered uncompetitive D. the market price is always the​ profit-maximizing price
Business
2 answers:
max2010maxim [7]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Correct answer for why a firm in perfect competition is a price taker is option  <u>A. it produces a tiny proportion of the total output of a particular good and buyers are well informed about the prices of other firms</u>

Explanation:

A price taker is a company that has no control to dictate prices for a good or service.

In the stock exchange market, a price taker is a trader who does not affect the price of the stock if he or she buys or sells shares.

A price taker is a business that sells such available products that it must accept the prevailing market price for its products. For example, a farmer produces wheat, which is a readily available. The farmer can only sell at the prevailing market price or lose.

All economic participants are considered to be price-takers in a market of perfect competition or one in which all companies sell an identical product, there are no barriers to entry or exit, every company has a relatively small market share, and all buyers have full information of the market.

VLD [36.1K]4 years ago
3 0

Answer: B it's easier to take the price as given rather than calculate the profit maximizing price

Explanation:

Because if a firm in perfect competition attempt to charge a tiny amount above the market price sales will be hard and sometimes almost impossible

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Consider the following information for Evenflow Power Co., Debt: 5,000 6.5 percent coupon bonds outstanding, $1,000 par value, 1
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

<em>WACC 10.07765%</em>

Explanation:

We solve for the cost of debt by solving for the discount rate which makes the future coupon payment and maturity of the bond equal to 1,020

This is solved using excel or a financial calculator

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 32.50

time 34

<em>rate 0.03153274</em>

32.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.03153274)^{-34} }{0.0315327401919093} = PV\\

PV $672.0015

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   34.00

<em> rate  0.03153274</em>

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.03153274)^{34} } = PV  

PV   348.00

PV c $672.0015

PV m  $347.9985

Total $1,020.0000

<u>annual cost of debt:</u>

0.031532 x 2 = 0.063064 = 6.31%

<u>debt outstanding:</u>

5,000 bonds x $ 1,000  x 102/100 = 5,100,000

<u>equity</u>:

105,000 shares x $59 each = 6,195,000

For  the equity we solve using CAMP

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.05

market rate = 0.09

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.085

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.17

Ke= 0.05 + 1.17 (0.085)

<u>Ke 0.14945</u>

Now we solve for the WACC

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

D  5,100,000

E  6,195,000

V  11,295,000

Equity weight 0.5485

Debt Weight 0.4515

Ke 0.14945

Kd 0.0631

t 0.34

WACC = 0.14945(0.5485) + 0.0631(1-0.34)(0.4515)

<em>WACC 10.07765%</em>

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3 years ago
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the imposition of a price ceiling on the market for milk? a. Policymak
kozerog [31]

Buyers of milk, recognizing that the price ceiling is good for them, have pressured policymakers into imposing the price ceiling.

3 0
3 years ago
Waller, Inc., is trying to determine its cost of debt. The firm has a debt issue outstanding with 20 years to maturity twith a c
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

The after-tax cost of debt : 3.90%.

Explanation:

The semi-annual coupon = 1,000 x 5% /2 = $25.

The before-tax cost of debt, denoted as i, is the yield to maturity of the company's debt, which is calculated as below:

(25/i) x [1 - (1+i)^-40] + 1,000/(1+i)^40 = 854 <=> i = 3.147%.

=> Because the debt is semi-annual compounded, we have the: Effective annual rate = Before-tax cost of debt =  ( 1+ 3.147%)^2 -1 = 6.39%.

=> After tax cost of debt = Before tax cost of debt x ( 1 - tax rate) = 6.39% x ( 1 - 0.39) = 3.90%.

So, the answer is 3.90%.

4 0
4 years ago
On December 28, 2021, Tristar Communications sold 14 units of its new satellite uplink system to various customers for $40,000 e
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Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the income before tax in the year 2022 would be reduced or decreased by the cash discount amount i.e. shown below:

= Sale value × discount rate × number of units sold

= $40,000 × 1% ×  14 units

= $5,600

Hence, the amount is $5,600

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come

And, the same is to be considered

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