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Paladinen [302]
4 years ago
14

Consider the economies of Macmillana and Bloedelo, which are identical except that the multiplier in Macmillana is smaller than

that in Bloedelo. This means that Macmillana's GDP is Bloedelo's GDP to fluctuations in the components of total spending. Features of the economy that reduce its sensitivity to shocks are called automatic stabilizers. Suppose again that the economies of Macmillana and Bloedelo are identical except that Macmillana has instituted a system of unemployment insurance, whereas Bloedelo hasn't. Macmillana's economy is sensitive to fluctuations in GDP than Bloedelo's economy. This is because the system of unemployment insurance has Macmillana's multiplier.
Business
1 answer:
GrogVix [38]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Macmillana's GDP is less sensitive economic fluctuations than Bloedelo's GDP. Two reasons account for this:

1) The keynesian multiplier is smaller.

The keynesian multiplier tells us about the sensitivity of GDP to increases in domestic expenditure (consumption, investment or government purchases). If the keynesian multiplier is small, then, GDP will be less sensitive to fluctuations in aggregate expenditure.

2) Macmillana's economy has implemented automatic stabilizers, while Bloedelo's economy has not.

Automatic Stabilizers are government policies meant to reduce fluctuations in GDP. The two most common automatic stabilizers are: income taxes and unemployment benefits.

Automatic Stabilizers reduce the kenyensian multiplier, dampening Macmillana's GDP sensitivity to fluctuations even more.

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6 0
3 years ago
Airborne Airlines Inc. has a $1,000 par value bond outstanding with 10 years to maturity. The bond carries an annual interest pa
yanalaym [24]

Answer:Yield to maturity is 9.59%;  After tax cost of debt =7.672%

Explanation:

 A)   Yield to maturity ={ C + (FV-PV)/t} /  {(FV +PV)/2}

Where C – Interest payment    = $90

FV – Face value of the security

= $1000

PV – Present value/curent market value = $960

t – years it takes the security to reach maturity= 10 years

imputing the values and calculating,

yield to maturity ={ C + (FV-PV)/t} /  {(FV +PV)/2}

= $90 + (1000-960)/10} / 1000 + 960 /2

$90 + 4= $94 /980= 0.0959

therefore Yield to maturity is 9.59%

B)   After tax cost of debt =    Yield To Maturity  x (1 - tax rate)

=9.59% x (1-20%)= 9.59% x (1-0.2 )= 9.59% x 0.8 =

9.59 % x 80%=7.672%

4 0
3 years ago
Lee Kwon is a Korean worker who has been transferred by his company to the United States for six months to negotiate a supplier
Greeley [361]

Answer:

high-context culture

Explanation:

A high-context culture is a form of communicating with people in which the language and its rules play a very blurred role. The communication is primarily executed through the use of contextual elements like the language of the body, the tone used. Only the required information is set out for communication and the verbal expressions are kept aside. The members focus primarily on interpersonal relationships.

8 0
3 years ago
A 28-year-old single investor has funds saved at a bank. He contacts an RR and wants to begin allocating funds to a retirement a
Contact [7]

Answer: a. 80% stocks, 20% bonds

Explanation:

Stocks are a better fit for young people for 2 reasons;

1. Younger people are usually more risk tolerant. This means that they can pick financial vehicles that are more reflective of this risk taking mentality such as Stocks.

2. As they are far from retirement, their main goal should be saving for retirement. Stocks offer a better chance as Capital Appreciation so that their investments will grow before they retire leaving them in a better position when they do.

Fixed income is more for the older generation so that they may be sure of stable income while they are in retirement.

At the same time, every portfolio should be diversified to avoid risk so 20% going to bonds is ideal.

6 0
3 years ago
Tamarisk Leasing Company agrees to lease equipment to Vaughn Corporation on January 1, 2020. The following information relates t
____ [38]

Answer:

1. Finance lease to Vaughn Corporation

Sales-type lease

2. Annual Rental = $ 137,604

3. Lease Liability = $ 741,418

4. Vaughn Corporation.

2020

Jan. 1

Dr Lease Equipment $741,418

Cr Lease Liability $741,418

Jan. 1

Dr Lease Liability $137,064

Cr Cash $137,064

Dec. 31

Dr Depreciation Expense $99,488

Cr Accumulated Depreciation - Finance Lease $99,488

Dec. 31

Dr Interest Expense $66,479

Cr Interest Payable $66,479

2021

Jan. 1

Dr Lease Liability $70,585

Dr Interest Payable $66,479

Cr Cash $137,064

Dec. 31

Dr Depreciation Expense $99,488

Dr Accumulated Depreciation - Finance Lease $99,488

Dec. 31

Dr Interest Expense $58,715

Dr Interest Payable $58,715

5. Tamarisk Leasing Company.

2020

Jan. 1

Dr Lease Receivable $760,000

Dr Cost of Goods Sold $541,000

Cr Sales Revenue $760,000

Cr Inventory $541,000

Jan. 1

Dr Cash $137,064

Cr Lease Receivable $137,064

Dec. 31

Dr Interest Receivable $62,294

Cr Interest Revenue $62,294

2021

Jan. 1

Dr Cash $137,064

Cr Lease Receivable $74,770

Cr Interest Receivable $62,294

Dec. 31

Dr Interest Receivable $54,817

Cr Interest Revenue $54,817

Explanation:

1. Discussion of the nature of this lease for both the lessee and the lessor.

(i) Based on the information given it is a Finance lease to Vaughn Corporation reason been that the term of the lease is higher than 75% of the leased asset economic life based on the fact that the term of the leaseis 78% calculated as (7/9).

(ii) Based on the information given Tamarisk Leasing Company reason been the lease payments can be predictable because their are no uncertainties concerning the costs that is yet to be incurred by the lessor, and secondly the term of the lease is higher than 75% of the asset’s economic life because the amount of $ 760,000 of the equipment is above the lessor’s cost of the amount of $ 541,000 which is why the lease is a Sales-type lease

2. Calculation of Annual Rental Payment

Annual Rental = {FV - (RV * PVF(n=7 years, r=10%))} / PVADF(n=7 years, r=10%)

Annual Rental = {$ 760,000 - ($ 45,000 * 0.51316} / 5.35526

Annual Rental = $ 137,604

3. Calculation of Lease Liability to the Lessee.

First step

Present Value of Annual Payments = $ 137,604 * PVADF(n= 7 years, r=11%)

Present Value of Annual Payments = $ 137,604 *5.23054

Present Value of Annual Payments = $ 719,743

Present Value of Guaranteed Residual Value = $ 45,000 * PVF(n= 7 years, r=11%)

Present Value of Annual Payments = $ 45,000 * .48166

Present Value of Annual Payments = $ 21,675

Hence,

Lease Liability = $ 719,743 + $ 21,675

Lease Liability = $ 741,418

4. Preparation of the Journal Entries for Vaughn Corporation.

2020

Jan. 1

Dr Lease Equipment $741,418

Cr Lease Liability $741,418

Jan. 1

Dr Lease Liability $137,064

Cr Cash $137,064

Dec. 31

Dr Depreciation Expense $99,488

Cr Accumulated Depreciation - Finance Lease $99,488

($ 741418 - $ 45,000) ÷ 7 years

Dec. 31

Dr Interest Expense $66,479

Cr Interest Payable $66,479

($ 741418 - $ 137,064) * 11%

2021

Jan. 1

Dr Lease Liability $70,585

Dr Interest Payable $66,479

Cr Cash $137,064

Dec. 31

Dr Depreciation Expense $99,488

Dr Accumulated Depreciation - Finance Lease $99,488

Dec. 31

Dr Interest Expense $58,715

Dr Interest Payable $58,715

($ 741418 - $ 137,064 - $ 70,585) * 11%

5. Preparation of the Journal Entries for Tamarisk Leasing Company.

2020

Jan. 1

Dr Lease Receivable $760,000

Dr Cost of Goods Sold $541,000

Cr Sales Revenue $760,000

Cr Inventory $541,000

Jan. 1

Dr Cash $137,064

Cr Lease Receivable $137,064

Dec. 31

Dr Interest Receivable $62,294

Cr Interest Revenue $62,294

($ 760,000 - $ 137064) * 10%

2021

Jan. 1

Dr Cash $137,064

Cr Lease Receivable $74,770

Cr Interest Receivable $62,294

Dec. 31

Dr Interest Receivable $54,817

Cr Interest Revenue $54,817

($ 760,000 - $ 137064 - $ 74,770) * 10%

7 0
3 years ago
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