Answer:
0
Step-by-step explanation:
Remember that f(x) stands for y. No number can be equal to 0 other than it self. Thus, proving that 0 is only logical answer.
f(x) = 0 → y = 0 → 0 = 0
Best of Luck!
Option D:
Solution:
Given function:
To find the inverse of the function.
<u>Inverse of a function:</u>
<em>If a function f(x) is mapping x to y, then the inverse function of f(x) maps y back to x.</em>
Interchange the variables x and y.
Now, solve for y.
Multiply both sides by (y - 5).
Cancel the common factors, we get
Divide by x on both sides.
Add 5 on both sides.
To make the denominator same, multiply the 2nd term by 
.
Option D is the correct answer.
Answer:
1. √32
2. 4
3. 5
4. √29
5. √10
6. 5√2
Step-by-step explanation:
Use Pythagoras
Answer:
x = 16
Angle p = 50°
Angle q = 40°
Step-by-step explanation:
"complementary" means the angles add up to 90°.
So,
3x+2 + 3x-8 =90
combine like terms.
6x - 6 = 90
add 6
6x = 96
divide by 6
x = 16
If x = 16,
then Angle p=
3x + 2
= 3(16) + 2
= 48 + 2
= 50
Angle p = 50°
And,
Angle q
= 3x - 8
= 3(16) - 8
= 48 - 8
= 40
Angle q = 40°
Check:
40° + 50° = 90°
Shall we make life simpler by eliminating unnecessary numbers.
<span>Totally, my expenses would be 60+200 = $260. Let us say that of this $100 would be met by the weekly bonus so that the residual part of the requirement is $160. </span>
<span>Let x be the number of hours I work. Then my earning would be 11x. For break even, earning should equal requirement. That is 11x = 160. And so, x = 160/11 = 14.55 hours/week </span>
