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Sidana [21]
3 years ago
13

The length of a rectangle is the sum of the width and 3. The area of the rectangle is 54 units. What is the width, in units, of

the rectangle?
Mathematics
2 answers:
son4ous [18]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

let width=x

length=x+3

x(x+3)=54

x²+3x-54=0

x²+9x-6x-54=0

x(x+9)-6(x+9)=0

(x+9)(x-6)=0

x=-9,6

x=-9 (rejected)

as width can't be negative.

hence width=6 units

aniked [119]3 years ago
3 0
I don’t know what to say about this question
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In a baseball card collection, 40% of the cards are worth more than 100$. If 12 cards in the collection are worth more than $100
Helen [10]

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

12 is 40% of the total number of cards.

12 = 0.4x, where x is total number of cards

/0.4 /0.4

30 = x

30 cards

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3 years ago
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Jeff has 50,670 miles on his truck he drives 200 miles each week traveling to and from work he plans on selling his truck after
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The answer to the question

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1. A luge race is very dangerous, and a crash can cause serious injuries. The league requires anyone who has a crash to have a t
antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

0.7061 = 70.61% probability she will have her first crash within the first 30 races she runs this season

Step-by-step explanation:

For each race, there are only two possible outcomes. Either the person has a crash, or the person does not. The probability of having a crash during a race is independent of whether there was a crash in any other race. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A certain performer has an independent .04 probability of a crash in each race.

This means that p = 0.04

a) What is the probability she will have her first crash within the first 30 races she runs this season

This is:

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

When n = 30

We have that:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{30,0}.(0.04)^{0}.(0.96)^{30} = 0.2939

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.2939 = 0.7061

0.7061 = 70.61% probability she will have her first crash within the first 30 races she runs this season

7 0
3 years ago
1 hour = 3,600 seconds and 1 mile = 5,280 feet. Make a conjecture about how you could convert a speed of 15 miles per hour to fe
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

  multiply by feet per mile and divide by seconds per hour

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the desired units, multiply by a factor that is equal to 1, but has the desired units in the numerator and the units you're converting from in the denominator.

For units in the denominator that you want to change, use the inverse of the above multiplier.

We have miles/hour, which has miles in the numerator. We want feet/second, which has feet in the numerator, so we need to multiply by the ratio of feet per mile: 5280 ft/mi.

We also have hours in the denominator, where we want seconds. So, we divide by the factor 3600 s/h.

  \dfrac{15\,\text{mi}}{\text{h}}\cdot\dfrac{5280\,\text{ft}}{\text{mi}}\cdot\dfrac{\text{h}}{3600\,\text{s}}=22\,\text{ft/s}

6 0
3 years ago
I WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST ANSWER JUST PLZ HELP
koban [17]
I believe the answer is 1/2 because 5 out of 10 of the trials have 0 occurring more than once so the fraction is 5/10= 1/2 so I think you answer should be 1/2
8 0
3 years ago
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