Answer:ez 26
Step-by-step explanation: how do you not know this
SOLUTION
This is a binomial probability. For i, we will apply the Binomial probability formula
i. Exactly 2 are defective
Using the formula, we have

Note that I made the probability of being defective as the probability of success = p
and probability of none defective as probability of failure = q
Exactly 2 are defective becomes the binomial probability

Hence the answer is 0.1157
(ii) None is defective becomes

hence the answer is 0.4823
(iii) All are defective

(iv) At least one is defective
This is 1 - probability that none is defective

Hence the answer is 0.5177
Answer:
the answer is false because it will always be a odd number
Answer:
Sin = -5/13
Cos = 12/13
Tan = -5/12
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Neither, why... for it to be direct or inverse variation, the model has to fit either y=k/x or y=kx, it may not have a y-intercept at all if it is inverse variation and it must have a y-intercept of 0 for it to be direct variation.
Step-by-step explanation:
The statement y=2 is quite specific. Because k is positive, y increases as x increases. So as x increases by 1, y increases by 1.5. Inverse Variation: Because k is positive, y decreases as x increases. yx is a constant number -8. The constant of variation, k , is 23 . Inverse Variation
An inverse variation can be represented by the equation xy=k or y=kx .
That is, y varies inversely as x if there is some nonzero constant k such that, xy=k or y=kx where x≠0,y≠0 .
Suppose y varies inversely as x such that xy=3 or y=3x . That graph of this equation shown.