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Tpy6a [65]
3 years ago
15

Solve for v = Ok thankyou sm

Mathematics
2 answers:
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Hello!!! Princess Sakura here ^^

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{3}{v} =1\\v=3

This could be confusing so I'll explain. What you need to do is to do the inverse so in this case you would multiply the v on both sides. The v's would cancel out and the one times v will be v due to the identity property of multiplication, and that will leave you with 3=v but I personally don't like that so I flip it around to v=3.

solniwko [45]3 years ago
3 0
Answer: V= 3
Explanation: you multiply 3 times 1 and it gives you 3
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Apply IBP once more, with

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Notice that the ∫ v du term contains the original integral, so that

\displaystyle I = e^n \sin(\pi n) - \pi \left(e^n \cos(\pi n) + \pi \int e^n \sin(\pi n) \, dn\right)

\displaystyle I = \left(\sin(\pi n) - \pi \cos(\pi n)\right) e^n - \pi^2 I

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