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3 years ago

Jill drives 75 1/3 miles every hour how many miles can Jill Drive in 8 and 3/4 hours

1 answer:

6 0

First, multiply 75 by 8 to get 600.
Then multiply 1/3 by 8 to get 8/3 or 2 2/3.
Add those together to get 602 2/3.

Next multiply 1/3 by 3/4 by multiplying the numerator by 3 and the denominator by 4. That is 3/12. Also known as 1/4.
Multiply 75 by 3/4 by dividing it by 4 then multiplying it by 3. That is 56 1/4.
Add 56 1/4 and 1/4 together to get 56 1/2.

Lastly, add together 56 1/2 and 602 2/3.
Convert the fractions to sixths.
56 3/6 + 602 4/6 = 659 1/6 miles
Hope this helps!

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The line at the bullet roller coaster is moving about 4 feet for every 15 minutes. At this rate, how many hours would it take fo

Brums [2.3K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

4/15 which is our fraction distance/time

our other fraction is 24/x (x is our variable to find our time)

Now we are doing the buultterfly method

set it up

now multiply 4*x= 4x

15*24=360

now divide 4x ÷ 4 to get our variable alone

do the same to the other side

4 ÷ 360= 90

so x= 90 which is our missing number

8 0

3 years ago

Solve this system of linear equations. Separate the x- and y-values with a comma.

vodomira [7]

Answer:

x = $\frac{5}{2}$ , y = $\frac{5}{4}$

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Isolate for x in one of the equations:

2x = 9x - 14y

2x-9x = 9x-9x -14y

-7x = -14y

-7x/-7 = -14y/-7

x = 2y

2. Substitute 2y in for x in the second equation:

9(2y) = 40 - 14y

3. Simplify:

18y = 40 - 14y

4. Isolate for y:

18y+14y = 40 -14y+14y

32y = 40

32y/32 = 40/32

y = $\frac{5}{4}$

5. Substitute the new y-value into the simplified expression x = 2y:

x = 2(5/4)

x = $\frac{5}{2}$

hope this helps!

7 0

2 years ago

Are the ratios 6:2 and 2:6 equivalent?

Alenkasestr [34]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

2 years ago

A tourist in London looks up at the clock in Big Ben tower and finds that it is exactly 8:00. When she looks up at the clock lat

Andrew [12]

To answer that question we need to use THE RULE OF THREE, this rule will help us solving linear relation problems.

Solution is:

The hour hand will turn (1/36)×π

The Table

Step minute hand hour hand

0-5 (1/6)×π (1/72)×π

10 (2/6)×π (1/36)×π

15 (3/6)×π = π/2 (1/24)×π

20 (4/6)×π = (2/3)×π (1/18)×π

25 (5/6)×π (5/72)×π

30 (6/6)×π = π (1/12)×π

35 (7/6)×π (7/72)×π

40 (8/6)×π (8/72)×π

45 (9/6)×π = (3/2)×π (3/24)×π

50 ( 10/6)×π ( 10/72)×π

55 (11/6)×π (11/72)×π

60 (12/6)×π = 2×π (12/72)×π = π/6

We know that each complete minute hand turn, is a 2×π angle turn, then a 5 minutes turn is (1/12) × 2×π = (π/6)
We will use that relationship to build the table and answer the question

If 2×π angle for a minute hand turn is equal to 1 hour, then

(2/6) angle for a minute hand turn is equal to "x" turn in the hour hand

So by Rule of Three, we proceed

2×π ( Of minute hand) ⇒ (1/6)×π (of hour hand)

(2/6)× π ( Of minute hand) ⇒ x

Solving for x

2×π × x = (2/6)× π × (1/6)×π

2× x = (2/36)×π

x = (1/36)×π

Now to build the table in 5 minutes steps:

Related Link: brainly.com/question/19586594

7 0

1 year ago

What is the answer to this question

finlep [7]

Step-by-step explanation:

0 devided by 6 is 0

2 over 0 is equal to 2

6 0

2 years ago