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Anika [276]
3 years ago
15

What is the opportunity coast in using pi over npv?

Business
1 answer:
salantis [7]3 years ago
4 0

<span>Topics Reference Advisors Markets Simulator Academy</span>  Profitability Index<span>By Investopedia</span><span> SHARE </span><span> </span><span>                                     Chapter One                                     Chapter Two                                     Chapter Three                                     Chapter Four                                     Chapter Five                              </span><span>Chapter One Chapter Two Chapter Three Chapter Four Chapter Five</span><span><span>4.1 Net Present Value And Internal Rate Of Return4.2 Capital Investment Decisions4.3 Project Analysis And Valuation4.4 Capital Market History4.5 Return, Risk And The Security Market Line</span><span>4.1.1 Introduction To Net Present Value And Internal Rate Of Return4.1.2 Net Present Value4.1.3 Payback Rule4.1.4 Average Accounting Return4.1.5 Internal Rate Of Return4.1.6 Advantages And Disadvantages Of NPV and IRR4.1.7 Profitability Index4.1.8 Capital Budgeting</span></span>
A profitability index attempts to identify the relationship between the costs and benefits of a proposed project. The profitability index is calculated by dividing the present value of the project's future cash flows by the initial investment. A PI greater than 1.0 indicates that profitability is positive, while a PI of less than 1.0 indicates that the project will lose money. As values on the profitability index increase, so does the financial attractiveness of the proposed project.

The PI ratio is calculated as follows:

<span>PV of Future Cash Flows
</span>Initial Investment

A ratio of 1.0 is logically the lowest acceptable measure for the index. Any value lower than 1.0 would indicate that the project's PV is less than the initial investment, and the project should be rejected or abandoned. The profitability index rule states that the ratio must be greater than 1.0 for the project to proceed.

For example, a project with an initial investment of $1 million and present value of future cash flows of $1.2 million would have a profitability index of 1.2. Based on the profitability index rule, the project would proceed. Essentially, the PI tells us how much value we receive per dollar invested. In this example, each dollar invested yields $1.20.

The profitability index rule is a variation of the net present value (NPV) rule. In general, if NPV is positive, the profitability index would be greater than 1; if NPV is negative, the profitability index would be below 1. Thus, calculations of PI and NPV would both lead to the same decision regarding whether to proceed with or abandon a project.

However, the profitability index differs from NPV in one important respect: being a ratio, it ignores the scale of investment and provides no indication of the size of the actual cash flows.

The PI can also be thought of as turning a project's NPV into a percentage rate.

(Find some profitable ideas in <span>8 Ways To Make Money With Real Estate</span> and Outside The Box Ways To Get Money.)
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Kirby just inherited $250,000. He would like to hire a financial advisor to provide financial advice and to manage the inheritan
Lostsunrise [7]

Answer:

First person

Explanation:

8 0
4 years ago
Beck Inc. and Bryant Inc. have the following operating data:__________.
DiKsa [7]

Answer:

a. Beck Inc. = 5.00  and Bryant Inc. = 2.50

b. Beck Inc. =  $100,000 and 100%  : Bryant Inc. =  $150,000 and 50 %

c. True.

Explanation:

Degree of Operating Leverage shows,  the times Earnings Before Interest and Tax (EBIT) would change as a result of a change in Sales contribution.

Degree of Operating Leverage = Contribution ÷ EBIT

Thus,

Beck Inc = $500,000 ÷ $100,000

              = 5.00

Bryant Inc. = $750,000 ÷ $300,000

                 = 2.50

<em>If Sales increased by 20% the effects on Incomes would be :</em>

Beck Inc = 20% × 5.00

              = 100%

              = $100,000 × 100%

              = $100,000

Bryant Inc.=  20% × 2.50

              =  50 %

              =  $300,000 × 50 %

              =  $150,000

7 0
4 years ago
Measuring performance relative to objectives and standards is part of ___________.
alekssr [168]
It would be part of <span>controlling</span>
5 0
4 years ago
Richland’s real GDP per person is $10,000, and Poorland’s real GDP per person is $5,000. However, Richland’s real GDP per person
dangina [55]

Answer:

It will take approximately 36 Years to Poorland to catch up to Richland.

Explanation:

Given data:

The GDP increase in Poorland per year = 1 %

The GDP increase in Richland per year = 3 %

Calculations:

Step 1: For Richland:

The formula for calculating the per year GDP increase for Richland is:

GDP = 10,000 + (10,000 x (1/100)) ---- (1)

GDP for first Year = 10,100$

GDP for second Year = 10,201 $

Similarly using the formula (1) we calculated the values for 10 and 20 years

GDP for 10th Year = 11046.2$

GDP for 20th Year = 12201.9$

Step 2: For Poorland:

The formula for calculating the per year GDP increase for Poorland is:

GDP = 5,000 + (5,000 x (3/100)) ---- (1)

GDP for first Year = 5,150$

GDP for second Year = 5,304.5 $

Similarly using the formula (1) we calculated the values for 10 and 20 years

GDP for 10th Year = 6719.6$

GDP for 20th Year = 9030.6$

Step 3: When will Poorland catch up to Richland:

By calculating values using the above formulas, we have found that for 38th year, Poorland will catch upto Richland and will have more GDP.

Poorland GDP for 36th Year = 14491.4$

Richland GDP for 36th Year = 14307.7$

6 0
4 years ago
A bond with 20 detachable warrants has just been offered for sale at $1,000. The bond matures in 20 years and has an annual coup
lisov135 [29]

Answer:

Value of one warrant = $ 6.88 (2 decimals).

Explanation:

Ordinary bond current value = pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

Ordinary bond current value = pv(6%,20,48,1000)

Ordinary bond current value = $ 862.36

Current Value of Bond with warrant = 1000

Warrant value = Current Value of Bond with a warrant - Ordinary bond current value

Warrant value = 1000 - 862.36

Warrant value = $ 137.64

No of Warrant with a bond = 20

Value of one warrant = Warrant value /No of Warrant with a bond

Value of one warrant = 137.64/20 = $6.882

Value of one warrant = $ 6.88 (2 decimals).

7 0
3 years ago
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