1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
777dan777 [17]
3 years ago
14

Due 2/18/18

History
1 answer:
astraxan [27]3 years ago
8 0
The two governments were monarchical. While England transformed into a democratic monarchy, the french people conducted a revolution in the 18th century and established a republic with a written constitution.
During the eras of absolute monarchy, the king or queen  word were absolute and final. The two countries had parliaments made of nobles.
You might be interested in
What president US state is located in the same area as the former Indian territory?
Eddi Din [679]
A region conceived as "the Indian country" was specified in 1825 as all the land lying west of the Mississippi. Eventually, the Indian country or the Indian Territory would encompass the present states of Oklahoma, Kansas, Nebraska, and part of Iowa.
8 0
4 years ago
Manifestations of globalization trend? Eg<br> prove?
Simora [160]
Rapid and significant human changes because the movements of people from urban to rural areas has accelerated also family disruption and social and domestic violence are increasing
8 0
2 years ago
The 13th, 14th, and 15th Amendments have "enforcement" clauses which give Congress the power to enforce the amendments' provisio
Valentin [98]
D. Civil Rights Bill would be my guess

6 0
4 years ago
1. List three examples of how individuals were treated differently in the USSR and the United States.
natta225 [31]

1. People in the USSR lacked the freedom of political expression that the people of the United States possessed because of government censorship.

2. While the USSR did allow individuals to possess private property, they were limited and could not own real estate like the people of the United States.

3. People in the USSR did not have freedom of religion and the government heavily imposed Marxist–Leninist atheism on its people.

6 0
3 years ago
What was the purpose of the Puritans settling the New England colonies? a. to stabilize the immigrants traveling to the United S
Alinara [238K]

Answer:

c. To practice their religion freely.

Explanation:

The Puritans were immigrants from England who were opposed to the Catholic Church of England and its laws and regulations. Because of their dissent against the Catholic ruling, these Protestants came to America to be free from the constraints under the Church of England.

These Puritans were mostly Protestants who were unable to practice their religion freely. With their new settlement at the New England colonies, they were able to freely enjoy the Protestant religion.

Thus, the correct answer is option c.

5 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • 100 BIG POINTS!!! PLEASE ANSWER ASAP!!! PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE...
    11·1 answer
  • What was one of the major causes of death along the trail of tears for the cherokee peoplw?
    10·2 answers
  • Which of the following was NOT a cause of the Spanish American War?
    8·2 answers
  • QUESTION 1
    10·1 answer
  • What was the comprehensive list of existing Roman laws created by Justinian I called? English civil law Roman law Justinian Code
    7·2 answers
  • Why did the crew of the Zong ship throw some captive Africans overboard?
    14·1 answer
  • Question 2
    11·1 answer
  • What was the main reason why it was more expensive to operate a school system in the South than in the
    12·1 answer
  • How did mercantilist policies create tension between Great Britain<br> and the colonies?
    7·2 answers
  • 90×20+20: <br>plz anwser ​
    14·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!